Instrumentation engineering


Control valve classification tree

Control Valve Classification tree | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Thermocouple color coding

Thermocouple lead wire colour coding | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Instrumentation documentation and check lists

Instrumentation Diagrams, Documents and Checklist | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Three element control in boiler

Three element control in a boiler | Kishore Karuppaswamy


Profibus | Kishore Karuppaswamy


Thermistors | Kishore Karuppaswamy


Boiler | Kishore Karuppaswamy

AS-i(Actuator Sensor Interface) Protocol

AS-i (Actuator sensor-Interface Protocol) | Kishore Karuppaswamy

General design requirements of instrumentation Part 1

General design requirements of Instrumentation part 1 | Kishore Karuppaswamy

General design requirements of instrumentation Part 2

General design requirements of Instrumentation part 2 | Kishore Karuppaswamy

General design requirements of instrumentation Part 3

General design requirements of Instrumentation part 3 | Kishore Karuppaswamy

General design requirements of instrumentation Part 4

General design requirements of Instrumentation part 4 | Kishore Karuppaswamy

General design requirements of instrumentation Part 5

General design requirements of Instrumentation part 5 | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Acceptable accuracy ranges of instruments

Acceptable accuracy ranges of Instruments | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Standard power supply requirements of instruments

Standard Power supply requirements for Instrumentation devices | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Instrumentation cable design specification

Instrumentation Cable design specification | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Painting procedure

Painting Procedure | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Typical foundation field bus wiring diagram

A typical Foundation Field bus wiring diagram | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Flow transmitter-DP type

Flow transmitter DP type | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Instrumentation related to motor driven pump

Instrumentation related to a motor driven pump | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Instrumentation hook up diagram continued

Hook up diagrams continued….. | Kishore Karuppaswamy


Dampers | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Limit switch

Limit Switch | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Lapping of a control valve

Lapping of a control valve | Kishore Karuppaswamy

I/P converter

I/P Converter | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Intrinsically safe barrier

Intrinsically Safe Barriers | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Bentley Nevada VMS continued..

Bently Nevada VMS continued….. | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Control valve leakage classification

Control valve leakage classification | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Control valve sizing equation

Control valve sizing equations | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Zero trimming of temperature transmitter

Calibration of Temperature transmitter zero trimming | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Calibration of Siemens Sipart PS2

Calibration of siemens sipart PS2 | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Hookup diagram of transmitters

Hook up diagram of transmitters | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Temperature transmitter RTD

Temperature transmitter – RTD | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Indian penal code

Indian Penal Code-IPC | Kishore Karuppaswamy

HART Communication

HART Communication | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Analysis of motor-pump vibration

Analysis of motor/pump vibration | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Parameter setting of Siemens probe LU ultrasonic level transmitter

Parameter setting of Siemens Probe LU Ultra sonic Level Transmitter | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Parameter setting of E&H FMP51 GWR

Parameter setting of E&H FMP51 GWR LT | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Parameter setting of KTEK MT5100 GWR LT
Parameter Setting of KTEK MT 5100 GWR LT | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Instrumentation tube fittings

Parameter Setting of KTEK MT 5100 GWR LT | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Radar (Non contact) Level transmitter working and parameter setting

Radar (Non Contact) Level Transmitter working and Parameters | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Parameter setting of Rosemount GWR 5300 LT

Parameter setting of Rosemount GWR 5300 Series LT | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Offset calculation of guided wave radar level transmitter

Offset Calculation for a Guided Wave Radar Level Transmitter | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Temperature measurement classification tree

Temperature measurement classification tree | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Flow measurement classification tree

Flow measurement Classification tree | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Level measurement classification tree

Level measurement Classification tree | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Pressure measurement classification tree

Pressure measurement Classification tree | Kishore Karuppaswamy


P&ID | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Smoke detector working principle

Smoke detector working principle | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Conductivity transmitter working principle

Conductivity transmitters | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Gas detector working principle (Point gas detector)

Gas detector working(Point gas detector) | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Gas detector working principle (Open path)

Gas detector working principle (Open path) | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Units and conversion

Units and its conversion | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Specific gravity of selected gases and liquids.

Specific Gravity of selected liquids,gases and saturated water(for different temperatures) | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Instrumentation interview questions

Instrumentation Interview Questions | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Temperature transmitter calibration

Temperature transmitter calibration | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Pressure transmitter calibration

Pressure transmitter Calibration | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Magnetostrictive level transmitter

Magnetostrictive Level Transmitter | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Hazardous area classification

Hazardous area classification | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Excel short keys

Excel Short Keys | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Digital electronics

Digital Electronics | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Thermocouple temperature mV calculation

Thermocouple Temperature mV conversion chart | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Foundation fieldbus

Foundation Fieldbus | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Rosemount 3051 series transmitters

Rosemount 3051 series transmitters | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Hydrogen sulphide H2S

Hydrogen Sulphide H2S | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Root Cause Analysis

Root Cause Analysis | Kishore Karuppaswamy

How to line interface level transmitter

How to line up interface Level Transmitter-“Shore Key Line up” | Kishore Karuppaswamy

pH analyzer working and calibration

pH analyzer working principle and Calibration | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Important mathematical formulas

Important Mathematical Formulas | Kishore Karuppaswamy

My India

India | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Oil in water analyzer

OIL IN WATER ANALYZER | Kishore Karuppaswamy

BS&W analyzer

BS&W Analyzer | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Capacitance type level transmitter

Capacitance type Level Transmitter | Kishore Karuppaswamy

LRV and URV of interface level transmitter

LRV and URV of Interface Level Transmitter | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Instrumentation loop diagram

Instrument Loop Diagrams | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Laser level transmitter


Turbine flow transmitter

TURBINE FLOW METER | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Zero suppression and elevation


Bentley Nevada 3500 VMS

Bently Nevada 3500 VMS | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Standard Maintenance procedure of control valve

SMP of a control valve | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Safety integrity level

Safety Integrity Level (SIL) | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Instrumentation working principle continued…

Instrumentation Working principle continued…… | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Instrument gland sizes

Instrument Gland sizes | Kishore Karuppaswamy

LRV and URV of DP level transmitter

LRV and URV determination for D.P. type Level Transmitter | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Instrumentation working principle

Instrumenation working principle | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Level measurement using pressure gauge

Level Measurement using Pressure Gauge | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Tips and tricks in field instrumentation

Tips and tricks in field instrumentation | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Data communication protocols

Data Communication protocols | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Pressure-units conversion

Pressure Unit Conversion | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Calibration of GWR Rosemount 5300 and KTEK 5100

Calibration,theory and initialization of GWR level transmitter Rosemount 5300 and Ktek 5100 | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Control valves

Control Valves | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Calibration and initialization of Rosemount 3051 ERS

Calibration and Initialization of Electronic Remote Seal level transmitter -Rosemount 3051ERS | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Calibration and initialization of wet leg impulse tube Rosemount 3051 CD series LT

Calibration and initialization of Wet leg impulse tube Rosemount 3051CD series LT | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Calibration and initialization of Rosemount 3051 CD capillary type LT

Calibration and initialization of rosemount 3051CD capillary type level transmitter | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Displacer type LT fisher fieldvue DLC 3010 digital level calibration

Displacer type Level transmitter Fisher FIELDVUE™ DLC3010 Digital Level calibration | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Reynolds Number

Reynold’s number | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Calibration procedure of displacer type level transmitter

Calibration Procedure of displacer type Level transmitter | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Chemical Hazard pictograms

Chemical Hazard Pictograms | Kishore Karuppaswamy

RTD temperature resistance chart

Chemical Hazard Pictograms | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Ingress protection

Ingress protection | Kishore Karuppaswamy

Ultrasonic flow measurement working principle

Ultrasonic flow measurement working principle | Kishore Karuppaswamy

HSE Questionnaire Part 3

Q>What is the initial first aid treatment for acid burns?

A>Flood the area with slowly running water for 20 minutes. Gently remove contaminated clothing while flooding the area. 

Q> What are the two primary objectives of First Aid treatment?

Sustain life.

Prevent a situation from becoming worse.

Promote recovery. 

Q> Who must be in charge of a First Aid box?

A responsible or trained person. 

Q> What special warning would you give to a casualty with suspected spinal injuries?

Not to attempt to get up or move. 

Q> What must a first aider always treat for and why?

Shock – Shock can prove fatal unless measures are taken to counteract. 

Q> Under what circumstances is it permissible to move a seriously injured person?

If there is further danger by leaving them where they are. 

Q> Where is the Humerus?

In the upper arm. 

Q> Where is the Radius?

In the forearm. 

Q> Where is the Ulna?

In the fore arm. 

Q> Where is the Femur?

In the thigh. 

Q> Where are the tarsals and metatarsals?

In the ankles and feet. 

Q> Where are the carpals and metacarpals?

In the wrists and hands. 

Q>In what area of the body is one likely to sustain a Depressed Fracture?

The Skull. 

Q> Give two of the principal types of open wound?




Q> Name two conditions associated with electric shock that may be fatal?


Serious Burns.

Fibrillation of the heart. 

Q> Other than Electric Shock, what causes asphyxia?

Anything that prevents a supply of fresh air from reaching the lungs. 

Q> What is the aim of Resuscitation?

To prevent damage to the brain and other vital organs, which would occur through lack of oxygen. 

Q> Give two signs that would lead you to suspect a fracture in arm or leg injuries?


Shortening of limb

Abnormal positioning of hand or foot.


Q> Give two uses for a collar and cuff sling?

To support the wrist and raise the forearm in injuries to wrist and forearm.

To support the weight of a plaster cast when applied to wrist or forearm. 

Q> In the case of eye injuries, what should always be done?

They should always be seen by a qualified First Aider or Nurse, and referred to a doctor if necessary. 

Q> If somebody is heavily splashed with a corrosive liquid, name two necessary first aid actions?

Get the person quickly under running water.

Remove the affected clothing.

Get professional help if required. 

Q> Describe two forms of eyewash bottle?

Glass bottle with gravity feed.

Squeezable plastic bottle. 

Q>What does an eyewash bottle essentially contain?


Q> If you have used an eyewash bottle on a job, what should you do next?

Refill the eyewash bottle. 

Q> If a person falls and breaks a leg, outline two actions you would take?

Keep them still and warm, make comfortable without moving, and call for medical assistance. 

Q> How many times a minute should you carry out the sequence of artificial respiration on an adult?

10 12 times a minute until breathing starts, then work to their rhythm. 

Q> A person says they feel faint, what two actions must you take?

Support them until they can sit or lie down.

Send for a First Aider. 

Q> What is an Antidote?

A substance given to a person who has swallowed a poison to counteract the effects of the poison. 

Q. What is an emetic?
           A. A substance given to a person to induce vomiting.
Q. What is meant by First Aid?
         A. Immediate treatment only.
Q. What do the letters C.P.R. stand for?
A. Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation.
Q. Why is a reef knot used in a triangular bandage?
        A. It is non-slip and lies flat.
Q. If there is bleeding from the ear, what does this indicate?
     A. Brain damage.
Q. Abnormally low body temperature is called what?
         A. Hypothermia
Q. A displacement of one or more bones at a joint is called what?
        A. A dislocation
Q. In relation to a choking casualty, when should abdominal thrusts NOT be used?
For pregnant women

For overweight casualties.

For infants.

Q. A condition of temporary disturbance to the brain after a head injury is called what?
         A. Concussion.
Q. On arriving at an accident scene, what four steps should you take to control the situation?
          1.     Minimize the danger to yourself and others.

2.     Get others to assist you.

3.     Determine the priorities of the situation.

4.     Call for specialized assistance.


 Q> Give four symptoms of Carbon Monoxide Poisoning?



Oppression in the chest – difficulty in breathing.

Weakness of Limbs.

Unconsciousness may occur.

Color will deepen to cherry pink as level of CO2 rises in the blood. 

Q> Name four uses for bandages?

To fix dressings.

To secure splints.

To keep pressure on an injured limb.

To keep pressure on an injured limb.

To provide support for an injured limb. 

Q> Give four basic pieces of equipment needed for emergency treatment and transport of injured persons?

First Aid Box.

Splints of various sizes.

Water container,



Q> What is important when sending a casualty to a doctor or hospital after a works accident. Give four points?

The casualty should be accompanied by a note which should refer to the undermentioned.

The circumstances of the accident.

Detail of materials involved in the accident, e.g. Concentration, temperature, time of exposure etc.

Details of First Aid administered. 

Q> Name the four prime responsibilities of a First Aider?

Assess the situation.

Identify the injury or condition from which the casualty is suffering.

Give immediate, appropriate, and adequate First Aid.

If necessary get the casualty to a doctor or hospital. 

Q> When attending an injured person after an accident, special attention should be paid to four conditions. What are these four conditions?

Failure of breathing.

Severe bleeding.


Precautions in case of back or internal injuries. 

Q. Explain what is meant by the term – Complicated Fracture?
            A. It is where the fractured end of bones do not break cleanly and splinters of bone become detached.
Q. Give an example of a comminuted fracture?
        A. Collar Bone or Clavicle Fracture sustained when a person stretches out an arm to break a fall.
Q. What are the medical terms for the Collar-Bone and Shoulder-Blade?
          A. Collar-Bone:- Clavicle. Shoulder-Blade:- Scapula.
Q. What are the medical terms for the Breast-Bone and Funny-Bone?
          A. Breast-Bone:- Sternum. Funny-Bone:- Humerus.
Q. What are the medical terms for the Knee-Cap and Upper-Leg?
         A. Knee-Cap:- Patella. Upper-Leg:- Femur.
Q. Name the two bones of the lower leg?
·            A. The Fibula and the Tibia.
Q. Name the two bones of the lower arm?
           A. The Radius and the Ulna.
Q. What are the four normal symptoms of inflammation?
            1.     Redness.

2.     Tenderness.

3.    Pain.

4.    Swelling.



Q. List four symptoms of a fractured bone?
            Difficulty in moving.





Symptoms of shock.

Q. Give four causes of shock?
            A. Loss of body fluids.


Heart attack.

Severe infections.

Spinal injuries.



Q. Give two reasons why slings are used in an injury?
           A. 1.     To afford support and rest to an upper limb.

2.     To prevent the weight of an upper limb pulling on or moving the chest, shoulders, or neck.

 Q> What may result if the blood vessels are constricted and the flow of blood is stopped in the limbs?

Gangrene in the affected limbs. 

Q> Give two methods of treating a person who has fainted?

Get the person into fresh air, lay the person flat on their back, raise feet and legs, loosen tight clothing at neck, waist, and chest.

Get the person into fresh air, sit the person down, loosen tight clothing at neck, waist, and chest, place persons head between their knees. 

Q> Name four methods of artificial respiration?

Mouth to mouth.

Holgar Nielson.



Q> What is the treatment for a nose bleed. Give four points?

Sit the patient up with their head slightly forward.

Instruct them to breathe through their mouth.

Pinch the soft part of the nose firmly for 10 minutes.

Prevent them from swallowing blood. 

Q. Name four types of wounds?





Gun Shot.


Q> If a person’s heart is beating faintly should you assist it with heart compression?


Q> What are the two purposes of blood circulation?

To carry oxygen to the tissues.

To extract carbon dioxide from the tissues. 

Q> At what stage can you leave a patient to summon help?

When the patient is breathing normally. 

Q> Give two reasons why people who are unconscious are placed in the recovery position?

To prevent the tongue falling back and blocking the airways.

To prevent vomit lodging at the back of the throat and blocking the airways.

Q. List two items that should NOT be applied to serious or severe burns?
         A. Adhesive plaster or tape.

Lotions, ointments or fats.

Fluffy materials e.g. lint.

Q. Give four causes of unconsciousness?


Drug overdose

Head injury.

Cardiac arrest.


Lack of oxygen. Diabetes.




Q. What should be the aim of First Aid in the treatment of Burns or Scalds. Give 3?
  1.     Reduce the effect of heat – use cold water.2.     Prevent infection cover with a clean non fluffy cloth.

3.     Minimize shock – reassure, rest, keep warm, quiet etc.

4.     Remove to hospital if burns are severe.

Q. In First Aid what is meant by the terms “Signs” and “Symptoms”?
  A. Signs – Are the abnormal things such as bleeding, swelling, deformity, raised or irregular pulse – i. e. you see them.

Symptoms – Are sensations that the casualty describes to you such as pain, loss of movement, giddiness, feeling of heat or cold, – i. e. things you do not see.

Q. What is the medical term given to a severe allergic reaction within the body from a poison?
  A. Anaphylactic Shock.
Q. What instrument is used to measure blood pressure?
  A Sphygmomanometer.
Q. Give six signs or symptoms of shock?
  1.     Giddiness or Faintness.2.     Coldness.

3.     Nausea.

4.     Pallor.

5.     Cold Clammy Skin.

6.     Slow Pulse, becoming feeble and rapid.

7.     Vomiting.

8.     Unconsciousness.


 Q> Many substances found in or about the home can be poisonous. What is the recommended First Aid in the case of a child who has drunk some poisonous liquid. Give 6 actions?

Quickly determine what has been drunk

Keep the child warm and comfortable.

Do not induce vomiting.

If unconscious put in recovery position.

Remove to hospital.

Bring a sample of the substance with you to hospital. 

Q> Give six signs or symptoms that may be apparent if a casualty was suffering from asphyxia due to fumes or smoke?

Difficulty in Breathing – shallow or fast.

Breathing Noisily – Gurgling or snoring.

Possible Frothing at the mouth.

Blueness of Lips.

Breathing stopped. 

Q> If a person becomes unconscious in an enclosed space

What action would you take and

What equipment would you need? Name five items

(a) Get assistance and effect a rescue

(b) Breathing Apparatus, Resuscitators,

Life Lines, Wrist Straps, or Harness. 

Q> What are the six main signs of carbon monoxide poisoning?


Head ache.

Redness of skin.

Difficulty in breathing.


Q> What do you call the condition resulting from poisons being released into the blood stream from crushed muscles and bones, and what may it cause?

Crush Syndrome – It may cause damage to or even destroy the kidneys. 

Q> In (1) which Swiss city and in (2) what year was the International Red Cross Society established?



Q>Name eight Steps in the First Aid Treatment of Shock?

Comfort and reassure the casualty.

Lay the casualty on a blanket, and keep

Keep the head low and turned to one

Loosen tight clothing to assist

If thirsty, moisten lips with

Check the pulse, 72 beats per minute.

Check breathing rate, 16/18 times per

Apply resuscitation, if breathing stops.

Get casualty to Doctors care quickly. 

Q>Does a higher flash point mean that a liquid is more flammable?

No – Less flammable. 

Q> What particular danger exists when flammable liquids or gases which are heavier than air are spilled?

The vapors may travel along the ground until they reach a source of ignition, or may collect in cellars etc. and accumulate to cause an explosion at a later stage. 

Q> Why earth metal equipment when dealing with flammable liquids?

To reduce the risk of a build up of static electricity which may cause a spark.

 Q> How would you contain leaks from large tanks containing flammable liquids?

Surround them with a containment wall or bund. 

Q> Do some moving liquids generate static electricity?

Yes – This can be a problem with flammable liquids. 

Q> What type of devise should you use to measure flammable vapors in an area prior to allowing work to commence in it?

An Explosimeter or Flammable Gas detector.

Q> How would you dispose of flammable liquid waste?

Store carefully until you can either incinerate them or have them incinerated at a suitable site

 Q> If your overalls become soaked with flammable solvent, what action should you take?

Remove them at once. 

Q> How should vessels, bins, tanks, and rooms used for storing flammable liquids be marked?

“Highly flammable liquid”.

 Q> What name is given to a suspension of a liquid in a gas?


Q> Do some moving dusts generate static electricity?

Yes – This can be a problem with flammable. 

Q> Name four essential safety precautions which should be taken when handling flammable solvents?

No smoking or naked lights.

Wear appropriate protective clothing.

Avoid spillage.

Use proper pouring aids.

Earth the container and pourer to avoid static electricity. 

Q>Name four precautions which should be exercised when storing flammable solvents?

Fire proof building.

Flameproof electrical fittings.

Means of escape.

Fire appliances.

Warning notices.

Earth the container and pourer to avoid static electricity. 

Q> Name two ways of overcoming the generation of static electricity in flammable liquid lines?

Earth supply lines.

Use Anti-static hose.

Reduce flow rates. 

Q> What are the two main methods of removing flammable material residues from drums or small tanks to be repaired?

Steaming out with live steam.

Boiling in water containing an alkali or detergent. 

Q> What other two things must you have when storing flammable liquids other than a fire-proof building, flameproof electrical fittings, and warning notices?

Fire Appliances.

Means of escape. 

Q> Name four intrinsic factors on which the fire risk of a flammable liquid depend?

Tendency to vaporize (volatility).

Flash point.

Density (Lighter or Heavier than Air).

Ignition temperature. 

Q> What is the maximum quantity of flammable liquid which may be kept in a laboratory, and under what condition may this liquid be kept in the laboratory?

Minimum practicable in relation to daily needs.

It should be kept in a closed vessel or container, in a fireproof cupboard. 

Q> Describe what is meant by the following?

Flash point.

Auto Ignition

Flammability limits.

(a) Temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient flammable vapor to form an ignitable mixture near its surface.

Lowest temperature at which a substance will ignite spontaneously

The upper and lower concentrations within which a vapor will form an ignitable mixture with air. 

Q>What is a code of practice?

Practical guidelines on the ways to achieve the lawful standards and objectives. 

Q. What would you expect to find in a pipeline painted Light Blue?


Q> If you go to a job in a department which is not your own, what do you do first?

Report to the supervisor. 

Q>When you have finished a job, what is the last thing you must do?

Clean up. 

Q> What gas produced in the brewing industry has been responsible for a number of fatal accidents?

Carbon Dioxide (CO2). 

Q>How can you safely open a bung from a barrel?

Wear protective clothing especially eye protection and remove the bung very slowly to release any pressure. 

Q> When a defect is found in any appliance what should be done?

Report it at once and get it repaired or replaced. 

Q> What situations should deter the use of power tools?

Where combustible gas or vapors. 

Q> What is the main toxic gas that persons involved in sewer maintenance and repair should be aware of?

Hydrogen Sulphide (H2S). 

Q>What toxic gas should be of concern where diesel power trucks operate in confined areas?

Carbon Monoxide (CO). 

Q. What dangerous material and dust may be encountered when stripping insulation from old steam boilers?


Q>What hazardous liquid may be encountered in connection with car batteries?

Sulphuric Acid (H2SO4) – Accept acid for one mark. 

Q> What is the principal danger associated with diving?

Decompression sickness (Bends). 

Q> What is the significant hazard associated with grain handling equipment?

Dust explosion. 

Q> The evaluation and control of mechanical and physical hazards encompass four engineering aspects – Name them?





Q>Abrasive wheels are coded as follows:- the abrasive, the grain, the bond, the structure, and the grade of hardness. Who should be familiar with this system, and why should a person be familiar with the coding system?

The person responsible for wheel mounting.

So that the correct wheel is selected and fitted for the work to be done. 

Q>Give four conditions that should apply to abrasive wheel work rests?

They should be of substantial construction.

They should readily adjust to follow wheel wear.

They should be securely clamped to the machine.

The work rest face should be within 3 mm of wheel. 

Q>What safeguards should be taken when using fixed abrasive wheels. Give four?

Fixed guard to contain wheel in the event of it shattering.

Eye protection.

Machine controls readily accessible.

Tool rests adjusted correctly. 

Q.>n March 1992, eleven North Sea oil workers lost their lives as the result of a helicopter crash. The subsequent enquiry was told that the crash was inevitable for several reasons. Give four reasons?

Poor flying Conditions.

Atrocious weather

Pilot took quickest route.

Exceptional down draught.

Pressure from crew in a hurry home. 

Q>When a replacement wheel has been fitted to a grinding machine and the guards and rest have been fitted and adjusted. What is the next procedure and what precautions must be taken?

Run the wheel for at least a minute before using.

Make sure everybody is standing clear during the test. 

Q>The EU specifies colors for safety signs for member countries, what color does the EU specify for Caution?


The EU specifies colors for safety signs for member countries, what color does the EU specify for Mandatory Action?


Q>Name two conditions which must be reduced or eliminated to prevent an explosion of a flammable dust?

Reduce the dust concentration below the Lower Explosion Limit Level.

Prevent any sources of ignition where there are concentrations of flammable dust.

Reduce the oxygen content of the container of the dust i.e. pressure with an inert gas. 

Q> What common salts found in water are usually responsible for clogging the tubes of a boiler. Give two?

Calcium Salts.

Magnesium Salts. 

Q> By which everyday method can one generate easily and most simply a temperature of 1,500 degrees centigrade?

By lighting a match, the temperature of a burning match head is approximately 1,500 degrees. 

If a steam pipe is assessed as suitable for a higher pressure than originally intended, what associated checks must be made on the pipe?





Other attachments. 

Q> Before a steam boiler is taken into service for the first time a certificate from the manufacturer is required, what two essential pieces of information must this certificate contain?

The Maximum Permissible Working Pressure.

The nature of the tests to which the boiler and its fittings have been submitted. 

Q>What precautions should be taken with the discharge from Safety Valves on a steam boiler?

The discharge from safety valves must be conducted upwards to a location where they do not constitute a danger. 

Q> Give three normal daily checks to be carried out on a steam boiler under load?

Cross blow and check water level gauges.

Check operation of automatic water level

Check fire controls and alarm. 

Q> When may work be commenced in a boiler furnace or boiler flue which has just been taken out of service and isolated?

When it has been sufficiently cooled by ventilation or otherwise to make work safe for the persons employed. 

Q> List six Safety and Health measures to avoid accidents when working in confined spaces?

Pre-Entry Precautions, remote removal of contents.

Isolate to ensure no accidental introductions.

Check and Certify the atmosphere, sufficient oxygen.

Provide adequate protective clothing.

Ensure ventilation of space during occupancy.

Provide Safety Harness and Wrist straps.

Provide a trained tank watcher.

Have means of sounding alarm and effecting rescue on hand. 

Q> Before any tank, pit or closed space, or any place where there is not natural ventilation is entered. What tests must be carried out on the atmosphere of the space to be entered. Give three tests?

That the atmosphere is free from combustible or explosive gases.

That the space is free from toxic gases.

That there is sufficient Oxygen present to avoid a health hazard. 

Q> Steamy environment can be hazardous, give six reasons why this is so?

Clothes become damp.

Heat stress from high humidity.

Obscures vision.

Electrical appliances could become live.

Moist hands can cause handling accidents.

Wet floors can cause slipping hazards. 

Q>What size of abrasive wheels or their washers must have marked on them the maximum permissible speed (in revolutions per minute) when they are first taken into use?

Abrasive wheels with a diameter greater than 55 mm. 

Q>Name three conditions that must apply to abrasive wheel work rests on pedestal type grinders?

They should be of substantial construction. 

They should readily adjust to follow wheel wear.

They must be securely clamped to the machine.

The edge of work rest should be within 3 mm of wheel face. 

Q>How frequently should abrasive wheels be dressed, and what is preferable and why?

As often as is necessary.

Frequent light dressings are preferable.

Frequent light dressings produce safer more efficient operating conditions. 

Q> What is Glazing in abrasive wheels?

What is the effect of Glazing in abrasive wheels ?

How is Glazing corrected ?

The use of too hard or too fine a wheel results in glazing. i.e. the wheel face becomes clogged with particles of the material being ground.

The effects are over heating and the need for excessive pressure on the work.

It can be corrected by using the correct wheel structure for the work, or by frequent dressing with a diamond tool. 

Q>In order to comply with current legislation and guidance, name three of the essential things a person mounting a grinding wheel must have?

Proper Training.

Competency to mount a wheel.

Appointment by the occupier.

His or her appointment entered in the register. 

Q> Name three of the five pieces of information given on the label of an abrasive wheel?






Q> In relation to, (a) Circular saws and, (b) Grindstones what influence has speed on safety?

(a) The faster the blade runs the more effective it cuts and thus the safer it is.

(b) The faster the stone runs the more dangerous it becomes.  

Q> Describe the warning signs used under classification packaging and labelling regulations to signal:-

Toxic Materials,

Corrosive Materials,

Irritant Materials?

All the above signs are in black characters/symbols on a yellow

A skull and cross bones in a triangle.

A test tube pouring drops of liquid onto a material with fumes arising from the material.

An X shape known as a Saint Andrews cross. 

Q> Name six types of radiation measuring devices?

Film Badge.

Ionisation chamber

Geiger counter.

Proportional counter.

Scintillahon counter.

 Q>What are the three main factors that increase the exposure hazard to radioactive substances?

Exposure Time.

Type of Radiation

Intensity of radiation. 

Q> Can you name three of the broad procedure classifications for radioactive decontamination?





Q> What three tests should be carried out on a sewer atmosphere before entry?

Sufficient oxygen present.

Presence of toxic gases.

Presence of flammable gases. 

Q>What is the principal of operation of Electrostatic Dust Extractors?

The principal of these appliances is the ionization of dust by passing the air or gas through an electric field thereby causing the particles to settle on collecting surfaces that are kept at the opposite polarity. 

Q> What are the three “E”s of a Safety Programme?



Engineering Standards. 

Q> Which, if any of the following, are ferrous metals: Iron, Aluminium, Copper, Lead and Steel?

Iron and Steel. 

Q> Name six headings that a code of safe work practice may be divided into?

Organization of work. 

Work on apparatus classified as dangerous.

Work on dangerous locations.

Work and working equipment.

Operation of certain plant.

Confined space. 

Q> In order to comply with current legislation and guidance on Docks who is responsible for providing life saving appliances, e.g. lifebuoys etc.?

The person or body having general management and control of the dock, wharf, or quay, or any other person having exclusive right to occupation of any part of the dock, wharf, or quay and who has management and control of such part. 

Q> Training is all important in maintaining Health and Safety Standards in the Work place. Can you name three of the four general situations that may arise for employee’s during their employment where training must be given?

On recruitment.

On transfer or change of job.

A change of work equipment.

On introduction of new technology. 

Q> Outside of First Aid Box contents matching the workplace requirements. Name three of the four other essential requirements to be addressed in respect of such boxes?

A regular contents check.

Location identity signs.

Easily accessible.

A responsible person. 

Q> In the design of a load handling station at a work place. Can you name three of the four essential considerations to be taken into account?

Distance to be covered.

Height difference between reception and disposing of load.

Frequency of handling.

Weight of objects to be moved. 

Q>In choosing inflatable personal protective equipment to prevent persons drowning on falling into water, name three of the five essential safety and performance criteria that equipment selection should be based on?


Righting ability even if wearer unconscious.

Inflation time.

Triggering of Automatic inflation.

Ability to keep nose and mouth out of water. 

Q> The agitation of slurry on farms can result in the release of a number of hazardous gasses. Name the most common of these?

Hydrogen sulphide.

Carbon dioxide.



Q>In carrying out a risk assessment to ensure safe work in Confined Spaces name six factors inside the space that should be considered?


Previous Contents



Oxygen Deficiency

Oxygen enrichment.

Structure and Layout




Q>In carrying out a risk assessment to ensure safe work in Confined Spaces name six factors outside the space that should be considered?

Ingress of sources of ignition.

Ingress of substances.

Inadequate isolation.

Inadvertent operation of plant.

Nearby work activities.

Inadvertent blocking of exit routes. 

Q>Name 6 key elements in developing a Safety Management System?

Initial Review.

H & S Policy.

Implementation and Operation.

Measuring performance.

Reviewing performance.


Q>Name six hazards involved with the use of chainsaws?


Eye injuries

Back Strain.

Kick Back injuries.




Q>List eight of the main protective measures to be considered and incorporated into a plant when designing explosion control into plant systems?


Explosion relief.

Flame arrestor.

Flame traps

High speed isolation valves.

Explosion suppression.



Q>Current legislation and guidance lays down four considerations in respect of the arrangement of outdoor workstations that are required to provide for the safety and health of employees. Can you name these considerations?

That employees are protected against inclement weather conditions and falling objects.

That employees are not exposed to harmful noise levels or to harmful influences such as gases vapors or dust.

That employees can leave their workstations speedily in the event of danger or can be rapidly assisted to do so.

That employees can not slip or fall. 

Q>A chain saw should be checked thoroughly before use. Name eight of the essential checks?

Stop switch marked and functioning.

Guards in position and good repair.

No damage to chain guide bar and sprockects.

All external fittings secure(e.g. Nuts, screws )

Chain tension correct.

Chain lubrication system working.

Saw chain sharpened.

Chain brake working properly. 

Q>Falls trips, slips, and collisions are typical accidents caused by what?

Bad house-keeping. 

Q>When a person finishes a job what two things must always be done?

Put tools away.

Tidy up area.

Q>Give two results of good housekeeping?



General Cleanliness. 

Q>Give two methods of removing oil from a workshop or factory floor?

Absorb in sawdust.

Proprietary absorbent.

 Q>How often should floors be cleaned?

At least once a week. 

Q>Give another name for good housekeeping?


Q>‘A place for everything, everything in it’s place’, Why?

Tidiness, Tools are easily found. 

Q>What is the best way to remove dust and dirt from the workroom?

By vacuum cleaning. 

Q>Why not blow the dirt and dust away?

It only transfers it to another place. 

Q>How often should a machine be cleaned?

Daily or after each shift or as often as necessary to prevent unsafe condition.

 Q>Give two principles of good stacking?

Good stability,

not too high for access,

well bonded and chocked,

and clear of overhead plant. 

Q>Should stacks of goods be vertical all round?

No, they should be stepped back occassionally. 

Q>What connection has good housekeeping with fire?

It considerably reduces the risk. 

Give two functions of white lines in yards or factory floor areas?

To define passageways.

To define storage areas. 

Q>If a solvent is used as a cleaner, what is necessary?

That occupational exposure levels are not  exceeded. 

Q>Why should solvent not be used for cleaning hands?

Solvent weakens skin by defeating it, and eventually breaks down protective layers.

 Q>Suggest two precautions for individuals working in an oily occupation?

Wash overalls regularly.

Do not put oily rags in pockets.

Inspect the body for symptoms regularly.

Maintain a high standard of personal hygiene. 

Q>Why not use abrasives to clean the skin?

They irritate the skin and tend to rub in the dirt. 

Q>What precautions should be taken when painting or cleaning using flammable solvents in a confined space?

There must be adequate ventilation, and smoking, and the use of naked flames, or sparks must be prohibited.

Q> Why does a person using an electrical welding process wear special eye protection?

To protect the eyes from Ultra-Violet Rays. 

Q>How would you protect persons other than the welder from eye damage?

Arrange a screen around the job or provide eye protection.

 Q>When dealing with toxic substances, what do the letters T.L.V. mean?

Threshold Limit Value. 

Q> What is “Caisson Disease”?

Decompression Sickness, or the bendness. 

Q>Working with a Laser may cause injury to the eye and skin. What is a Laser?

A beam of Intensified Light (Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation). 

Q>What is the common name for sepsis?


Q>What do the letters E.C.G. stand for?

Electro – Cardio -Graph. 

Q> When dealing with toxic substances, what do the letters M.A.C. stand for?

Maximum Allowable Concentration. 

Q> When dealing with toxic substances, what do the letters P.P.M. stand for?

Parts per Million. 

Q>What is a sprain?

Partial tearing of the tendons or ligaments connected with a joint. 

Q>What is a toxic substance?

Material that poisons the body system. 

Q>What is a corrosive substance?

A liquid or solid which attacks the skin or other material and destroys it.  

Q>Give another name for Vertigo?

Dizziness or fear of height. 

Q> If there is a confined space in which dangerous fumes may be present, what must be done before a person may enter?

The atmosphere must be tested and the conditions for entry specified. 

Q>If a diesel driven compressor is to be used in a plant, name two necessary precautions?

Must be sited in a safe place.

Exhaust fumes must be extracted or adequate ventilation.

Check that noise level is not over the legal limit. 

Q> What two sources may you take drinking water from?

Mains supply.

Any other certified source.

Q>How many bones in the human spine?


Q>What is the most effective protective measure against Hepatitis B?

Immunity by vaccination. 

Q> What disease is characterized by the presence of cells which have an unlimited power of disordered reproduction, resulting in the formation of tumors?


Q> Give two examples of substances or classes of substances exposure to which may lead to chronic effects?







Q>What is meant by working in a ‘Hyperbaric Atmosphere’?

‘Hyperbaric Atmosphere’ is when work is carried out in a compressed air enclosure or underwater diving. 

Q> The physical agents directive deals with problems of HAV and WBV. What are HAV and WBV abbreviations for?

HAV is Hand Arm Vibration and WBV is Whole Body Vibration. 

Q> What safety issues does the ‘Suzy Lamplugh Trust’ deal with?

The Suzy Lamplugh Trust deals with issues of lone working and personal safety. 

Q>The concentration of Chlorine Gas in a workroom should not exceed what level?

1 ppm (part per million) (b) 300 ppm. (c) 1 per cent. ?

(a) 1 ppm. 

Q>What is the name of the medical problem associated with the inhalation of siliceous dust in the pottery industry?


Q>Humans can be affected by brucellosis, how do they normally contract it. Qualify your answer?

Infected animals and animal products are almost always the source of human infection as man to man transmission is exceptional. 

Q> When working with synthetic resins, what four factors are most important?

Keep them off the skin.

Remove from skin immediately if contaminated.

Keep tools clean during and after work.

Report any abnormality found. 

Q> Give four types of safety equipment which should be worn by foundry workers?



Safety Shoes 



Q> Give four methods of drying the hands or face normally found in a work place?

Hand towels.

Roller towels.

Paper towels.

Hot air dryers.  

Q<Name six basic requirements for a barrier cream?

It should offer protection from the harmful agents.

It should be non-irritating & non-sensitising.

It should be easily applied.

It should be easily removed with soap and water.

It should not rub off under work conditions.

It should preserve the skin in a healthy conditions.

It should be bacteriostatic to prevent infection through surface damage of the skin.

It should be economical in use. 

Q>What happens to the brain in concussion and what is the subsequent danger?

Concussion occurs when the soft brain tissue strikes the rigid bones of the scull cavity.

Swelling of the brain and/or hemorrhage causing pressure within the skull resulting in brain damage or death. 

Q<Tetraethyl lead has toxic properties which require stringent precautions against skin and respiratory absorption. What substance that was in large scale use contained this compound?

Leaded Petrol as an “antiknock ingredient”. 

Q>What is the name of the major health hazard that was associated with wool sorters before it was overcome by improvement in production methods and disinfection?


When selecting respiratory protection and training personnel to use this protection in a specific area, name six items that need careful attention?

Establish the level of exposure.

Ensure the protection is adequate for the prevailing condition.

Ensure personnel are trained in the fitting, testing and use of the equipment.

Establish procedures for checking the correct operation, maintenance, and sanitization of the equipment.

Ensure that there are adequate spares.

Ensure that shelf life of the spares is valid. 

Q> Name three important items related to fume and dust respirators which a wearer should know and personally check?

That the respirator is correctly fitted and has no leaks.

That the correct cartridge and filter are fitted to give adequate protection.

That the shelf life and service life of the cartridge fitted has not expired. 

Q> The smaller the dust particle, particularly less than 5 microns in diameter, the more readily it will be absorbed into the body via the lungs. Give one other reason to explain why the danger increases as the particle size decreases?

Particles will remain airborne longer as the particle size falls. 

Q>The degree of hazard of a laser depends on the laser power and the wave length. Name one other factor which governs the hazard of a laser?

Exposure time. 

Q>How does metallic poisoning affect the body?

It destroys the viability of any form of living matter with which it comes into contact. 

Q>How does narcotic poisoning affect the body?

Narcotics are substances which are absorbed into the blood stream and produce an anesthetic effect. Some may also affect other systems of the body. 

Q>How do Hemolytic poisons affect the body?

They are substances which destroy the red cells of the body. 

Q>What is an asphyxiant?

These are substances which do not injure the respiratory tract but give rise to oxygen deficiency in the lungs. 

Q>The HSA booklet on workplace stress gives 10 examples of the potential effects of stress on a person. Name six of these effects?

Increased heart disease.

Increased digestive problems.

Skin problems.

Reduced immunity infections. 

Anxiety, depression.

Loss of job satisfaction/commitment.

Increased accidents.

Substance abuse alcohol & cigarettes. 

Q>The HSA booklet on workplace stress gives 6 examples of the potential effects of stress on an organization. Name the effects?

Increased absenteeism.

Low motivation

Reduced productivity.

Reduced efficiency

Faulty decision

Poor industrial relations. 

Q>Give three precautions that must be taken in the storage and handling of cyanides?

Keep cyanide away from acid.

Keep fingernails cut short.

Wash thoroughly before taking food and drink.

Food, drink and utensils must not be brought into rooms where cyanide is present.

Q> “Pattern” bruising is a distinctive sign of what type of injury?

Internal bleeding from a violent injury.  

Q>How often should all parts of cranes and lifting machines be thoroughly examined?

Every 12 months. 

Q> What is required to be marked on every lifting machine?

Safe Working Load (S.W.L.) 

Q> What is necessary if a jib can be raised and lowered?

An automatic W.L. indicator or a chart indicating S.W.L.s.

Q> How should a lift way be protected?

By a substantial enclosure fitted with gates. 

Q. What is essential about the fastening of a lift gate?

It must be an interlocking device. 

Q> What has to be marked on every hoist or lift?

The maximum working load. 

Q> What is necessary for the protection of a hoistway or liftway in respect of limiting the escalation of accidents?

It must be completely enclosed with fire resisting materials. 

Q> What is specially required on a hoist for carrying persons?

An automatic device to prevent over-run. 

Q> How does a crane driver know what to do?

There is a special code of signals. 

Q> Should a mobile crane be operated on a gradient?

No, it should always be level. 

Q> Under what condition can a person ride on the top of a cage in a hoist well?

Only if he has full control of the movement of the cage. 

Q> If a crane driver can not see the load to be lifted, who directs his actions, and by what method?

The slinger

By use of approved hand signals or appropriate radio communication. 

Q> What does the term slewing mean in relation to a crane?

The rotary motion of a crane jib or load about the centre of rotation. 

Q>What does the term “Luffing” or “Jibbing” mean in relation to a crane?

The angular motion of a crane jib in a vertical plane to change the hook radius. 

Q> What is the best method of conveying instructions to crane drivers?

By Approved Hand Signals or radio communication. 

Q> In normal circumstances if the load on the forks of a forklift truck obscures the drivers view, what should the driver do?

Travel in reverse and look in the direction of travel. 

Q> Give four main safety requirements of a hoist or a lift?

Good mechanical construction.

Sound material.

Adequate strength.

Properly maintained.

Q> Give the two important points relating to the interlocking system on a hoist or a lift?

The gates can be opened only when the cage is at the landing.

The cage will not move if the gates are not closed. 

Q> a person is on the track of an overhead travelling crane within what distance must the crane not approach him?

20 feet (6m). 

Q>Give four examples of lifting machines?




Gin wheel

Fork lift. 

Q> What extra hazard is there in using tower cranes, not normally met with ordinary mobile cranes, and what should be fitted in relation to same?

High Wind speed alarms/indicators should be fitted.

Q> In relation to cranes, What is a fly-jib?

A detachable auxiliary jib fitted at the end of the main jib. 

Q> What is meant by the term Safety Ropes or Jib Arresters in relation to cranes?

They are ropes, usually two, fitted between the underside of the jib and the crane to prevent whip back of the jib in the event of the sudden release of the


On what type of crane would you find a “Radius-Load Indicator” and what is its purpose?

On a jib – To show the maximum load that can be lifted in relation to its jib angle. 

Q>What does the term counterbalance mean when referring to the jib of a tower crane?

It is the weight added to the short end of the jib to balance the longer end of the jib. 

Q>Name four precautions to be taken when slinging a load?

Check the weight to be lifted.

Ensure the lifting machine and tackle are adequate and in good condition.

Position the slings to get a balanced and secure lift.

Watch out for trapping hazards.

Keep out from under the load. 

Q>Why should a forklift truck have its forks lowered, give two reasons for this

when loaded and (b) when unloaded?

(a) To lower the centre of gravity.

To give the driver a clear view.

(b). To release pressure on lifting chains.

This is the safest position. 

Q>In the event of an accident causing damage to a forklift truck, what four procedures do you follow?

Stop the truck.

Bring the load to a safe position.

Switch off and immobilize the truck.

Report immediately to your superior. 

Q>When is it permissible to exceed the Safe Working Load of a lifting machine?

When test weights are being applied, under the supervision of a competent person, to determine the safety of the machine. 

Q>When lifting irregular edged equipment with a crane and wire slings, what precautions must be taken in relation to the slings?

The slings must be protected from possible cuts or nips on sharp edges of the equipment being lifted. 

Q>When you hire a crane and driver for work on your site, who is responsible for checking the validity of the crane test certificate and lifting tackle test certificate?

You or your agent. 

Q>In order to comply with Current legislation and guidance how often must a Fork lift truck, including interchangeable accessories, be thoroughly examined?

Every 12 Months. 

Q>Name two respiratory diseases that have been associated with foundry operations?



Q> Name two common substances used in the home that can cause dermatitis?


Thinners or solvents.




Q> What is the chief danger for a person who is continually handling Epoxy Resins?


Q>What diseases may be caused by lack of care when using lubricating oils & cutting oils?

Dermatitis; Cutting oil is a suspect carcinogen. 

Q> Why wear gloves when handling cement?

To prevent Dermatitis. 

Q>If any skin trouble is noticed, what should you do?

Report to the First Aid Department, Doctor, or Nurse at once. 

Q>Give two important precautions when using synthetic resins?

Keep them off the skin.

Remove from the skin immediately if splashed.

Keep tools perfectly clean to prevent skin contamination. 

Q> Is dermatitis limited to work in the factory?

No, it can be caused by the misuse of substances in the home. 

Q>Give two ways to prevent dermatitis in the home?

Wear gloves.

Wash and dry hands.

Keep out of contact with suspect substances. 

Q> Name two dusts that are most harmful to health and have been associated with fire protection and metal cleaning respectively?



Q.What is the critical control of harmful dusts?

Removal at surce. 

Q> What is the best way to avoid dermatitis?

Each time you break off work, wash hands, arms, and face thoroughly with soap and water. 

Q> What is thought to cause the high incidence of nose cancer in wood workers?

Wood dust particles, particularly hard It is uncertain whether it is the size, shape, or chemical composition. 

Q>What is the most common work related disease?

Occupational dermatitis. 

Q>Give another name for Sensitivity Dermatitis?

Allergic dermatitis. 

Q>Dermatitis is a non-infectious inflammatory skin condition, caused by contact with chemicals or physical agents. Name the two categories of occupational dermatitis?

Contact Dermatitis.

Sensitization Dermatitis. 

Q> What four actions could you take to prevent dermatitis?

Avoid contact with dangerous materials.

Find a substitute material, non-dermatic if possible.

Wear protective clothing.

Use barrier creams.

Increase the degree of personal hygeine. 

Q> When working with possible sensitizing materials, name 4 ways of preventing infection?

Wear protective gloves.

Wash and dry the hands carefully.

Use an appropriate barrier cream.

Avoid unnecessary contact.

Change to a less hazardous material if possible. 

Q> Give four precautions to be taken if working in an oily occupation?

Wash overalls regularly.

Do not put oily rags in pockets.

Inspect the body regularly.

Maintain a high standard of personal hygiene. 

Q> Name four substances in the home that may cause dermatitis?


Petrol and oils.



Q>Give four methods of controlling the risk of lead poisoning?

By the removal of dust and fume.

Control of handling.

Control of eating and smoking.

The wearing of protective clothing.

Good washing accomodation. 

Q> What is banned from blasting by abrasives?

Sand or any substance containing free silica. 

Q.Name the 4 stages in the practice of Occupational Hygiene?





Q. What occupational disease is associated with the cotton industry?


Q>Give six causes of industrial diseases which are reportable to the H.S.A.?



Compressed Air.



Q> V.W.F. is a prescribed industrial disease. (a) what does V.W.F. stand for, (b) by what other name is it known, and (c) how does it affect the body?

(a) Vibration White Finger

Occupational Raynauds syndrome.

Damage to peripheral blood vessels and nerves. 

Q. Name six conditions or materials which cause occupational skin troubles?

Skin damage due to friction or pressure.

Micro-organisms from wood or plants.

Heat, Cold, Excessive sunlight.

Chemicals – Alkalis and acids.

Oils and Petroleum products.

Adhesives, Hardeners and dyes.

Solvents and cleaners.

HSE Questionnaire Part 2

  • List 8 of 20 specific tasks listed in Schedule 4 of Construction Regulations, 2006 which need CSCS Registration Cards?


  • Scaffolding basic
  • Scaffolding advanced
  • Mobile tower scaffold
  • Tower crane operation
  • Self-erecting tower crane operation
  • Slinging/Signaling
  • Telescopic Handler operation
  • Tractor/Dozer operations
  • Mobile Crane operation
  • Crawler Crane operation
  • Articulated Dumper operation
  • Site Dumper operation
  • 180º Excavator operation
  • Mini Digger operation
  • 360º Excavator operation
  • Roof and Wall Cladding/Sheeting
  • Built up roof felting
  • Signing, lighting and guarding on roads
  • Locating underground services
  • Shot firing 
  • Q > Overhead power lines pose a significant risk for any machinery operating below them. What precautions, insofar as reasonably practicable, need to be taken when vehicles are operating or passing under Overhead Power Lines?

A> (a) the supply to the overhead line is isolated,

      (b) if such isolation is not practicable, the overhead line is diverted,

      (c) if such isolation or diversion is not practicable, provide adequate

    1. barriers,
    2. protective measures,
    3. warnings, or
    4. other suitable means, 
  • Q> What are the General Principles of Prevention as listed in Schedule 3 of the 2005 Act. List eight?
  • the avoidance of risks,
  • the evaluation of unavoidable risks
  • the combating of risks at source
  • the adaptation of work to the individual
  • the adaptation to the place of work to technical ;
  • the replacement of dangerous articles, substances or systems of work by non-dangerous or less dangerous articles, substances or systems of work
  • the giving of priority to collective protective measures over individual protective
  • the development of an adequate prevention policy in relation to safety, health and welfare at work;
  • the giving of appropriate training and instruction to employees.


Q> What are the particular risks, which should be included in the Safety & Health Plan. Give eight?

    1. Particular risks include work which puts workers at risk of:
      • falling from a height
      • burial under earth falls or
      • engulfment in swampland
      • where work puts persons at work at risk from:
      • chemical or biological substances constituting a particular danger or involving a statutory requirement for health monitoring
      • work with ionising radiation
      • work near high voltage power lines
      • work exposing persons to the risk of drowning
      • work on wells, underground earthworks and tunnels
      • work carried out by divers using a system of air supply
      • work carried out in a cassion with a compressed air atmosphere
      • work involving the use of explosives
      • work involving assembly or dismantling of heavy prefabricated components. 
  • Why use fuses in an electrical circuit?

                 To protect circuits from overloads. 

  • Give two ways of identifying fuses in relation to electrical load – (Capacity)?


  • By Colour.
  • By size
  • Capacity on fuse. 
  • What is a circuit breaker?

A> A device used as a means of starting or stopping an electrical current.

Q> Name two safety protection requirements that should be provided for mains voltage soldering irons?

A>They should be earthed or double insulated.

  • They should be protected by a RCD (residual current device)/E.L.C.B.

Q>When should screens be arranged around a welding job?

A> When there is a danger to others working. 

Q> Give two ways to make an electrically driven machine safe to do maintenance work on?

A> 1.Lock out the switch with own lock.

      2. Remove the fuses. 

Q> Why is earthing of equipment necessary?

    1. To ensure protective action results if the metal work becomes live due to a fault.

 Q>Why not uses water on an electrical fire?

Water is an electrical conductor and could cause a short circuit. 

Q> Give two reasons for keeping power cables off the floor?

A> Damage to Cables.

     A Tripping Hazard. 

Q> Give two methods of protecting yourself from risk of shock to earth which do not involve electrical trip devices?

A>Use rubber mats.

    Wear rubber boots. 

Q> Give two hazards other than personal shock and equipment failure, which may result from faulty electrical equipment?

A> Fires.


Q>What precautions must you takes when testing live equipment?

A>Use only a proper insulated test set. 

Q> How is a double insulated appliance identified?

A> A double insulated appliance is marked with two squares one inside the other. 

Q> Name two prime areas in an electrically powered tool, which should be examined for possible damage before the tool is used?

A> The Plug.

      The Power

       Entry point of cable to appliances. 

Q> Must all portable electric power tools be earthed?

A> Yes, unless they are of the approved double insulated type. 

Q> Give two reasons why a portable electric power tool should not be connected to a light socket?

A> It will not be earthed.

     It may cause an overload. 

Q> What causes Static Electricity?

A> Movement and friction of materials which may be solids, liquids or gases. 

Static Electricity is produced when electrons are displaced in the surface of a material.

Q>Give two common causes of a build up of a static electricity charge?

A> The flow of solids.

The flow of liquids. 

The flow of gas through an orifice

The wearing of synthetic fiber clothes. 

Q> What is the basic thing that should be done if there is a risk of Static Electricity builds up?

A> Earth the relevant equipment. 

Q>What is essential to ensure low voltage electrical appliances are properly used?

A>They must be fitted with discriminating plugs to prevent them being plugged in to the mains. 

Q>What is the recommended maximum voltage for portable hand-lamps, used in damp or confined spaces?

A>They must not be more than 25 Volts AC or 50 Volts. 

Q> If a fault develops in a portable electric tool, what action should you take?

A> Cease to use it, and report it to your superior. 

Q>What is the danger of metal lamp holders?

A>They may become live with the risk of electrocution. 

Q> When taking an electrical cable across a gang-way, what precautions would you take?

A>Carry it safely overhead, or if on the floor, protect it with a suitable cover. 

Q> A person has received an electric shock and is still in contact with the live circuit. What should you do?

A> Switch off the current if possible, remove from contact using a nonconductor, and apply artificial respiration. 

Q> What type of electrical equipment is necessary where there is a risk of fire or explosion from fumes?

Equipment suitably classified for the exposure. 

Q> Can one get burns from electricity?

A> Yes. 

Q> What are the special requirements about hand tools used on electrical repairs?

A> They should be insulated. 

Q> The process of interconnecting all exposed metalwork to eliminate voltage differences (potential) between parts of the metalwork is called what?

A> Bonding. 

Q> Name four factors that increase the seriousness of electric shock?

A> Voltage.

   Moisture on the skin.

   Damp surroundings.

   AC or D.C. Current.

   Health of individual

   Magnitude of current. 

Q> Name four hazards of working with electric power?

   A> Electric Shock.


Q>In Health and Safety Legislation, how is high voltage defined?

 A> Voltage exceeding:-

        1,000 volts A C.

        1,500 volts D C. 

Q> Give four safety checks recommended before connecting an appliance to a mains supply?

A> Check appliance name plate voltage and frequency is matched to supply potential.

      Ensure socket and tool are switched off before plugging in.

      Check cable and plug are in good condition.

      Ensure that the cable is clear of the work. 

Q> What are the four main factors which govern the seriousness of an electric shock?

A> The amount of current flow.

The length of time of the current

The personal sensitivity to shock current, due to dampness, or earth contact.

The general health of the person. 

Q> Name four requirements of a battery charging room?

A>It must be free of smoking or naked flames.

It must have adequate ventilation.

It must have adequate suitable fire extinguisher.

It must have suitably classified electrical fittings. 

Q> Give four design requirements of a portable lead lamp?

A> Use a proper insulated holder.

Use a reliable switch.

Have a substantial enclosure around the bulb.

Ensure that the voltage meets regulation requirements. 

Q>Name four main requirements of an Electric Isolation Request Permit?

A>To nominate the precise plant to be isolated.

To nominate a date and time for the isolation.

To nominate the type of isolation required i.e. Fuses or Cables etc.

To get an acknowledgement when the isolation is complete.

To De-isolate and restore power to the equipment when safe to do so. 

Q> Where a high voltage transformer or switchgear outside a building is to be protected by fencing what minimum height of fence is required?

A> 2.4 metres (8 feet approx.) 

Q> Which Portable Electric Tools need not meet the requirements that the metal work be efficiently earthed?

“All Insulated” and “Double Insulated” Tools to approved standards. 

Q> What is the advantage of earthing the center point of a portable 110 Volt Transformer?

It limits the voltage to earth to 55 Volts, thus decreasing the electric shock potential below the known fatal level. 

Q> If one buys an electric drill with a kite mark and a double square mark on it, What do these marks mean?

A> The Double Square means it is Double Insulated and the Kite Mark means it is to a British standard. 

  Which of the following types of conduit are suitable for installation in extreme cold environments (a) Flexible Conduit, (b) Aluminium Conduit, (c) Plastic Conduit, (d) Steel Conduit?
·             A. a, b, and d. Plastic Conduit may become brittle and crack.
  Q. When an Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker is combined with an Excess Current Operated Circuit Breaker, what protection is given to the circuit?
·            A. The circuit is protected against Earth Faults and Overloads.
·   Q. Name four significant requirements for voltage detectors used for testing whether a circuit is live?
             1.      They should be properly designed.

2.      They should have well shrouded probes.

3.      They should have adequately insulated handles.

4.      They should have current limiting resistors.

  Q. What is flameproof electrical equipment?
·             A. Electrical equipment which can be used with safety in a flammable atmosphere without the risk of causing a fire.
  Q. Name 4 steps in protecting a heavy underground electric cable?
            1.      Lay the cable in plastic conduit.

2.      Pack around the conduit with sand.

3.      Cover the sand over the cable with flagstones.

4.      Post ample warning notices along route of cable.

  Q. You may find two colour coding schemes in use when you go to wire a single-phase 13-amp plug. What are the colour codes for Live, Neutral, and Earth in these two schemes?
           A. Live:- Brown (New); Red (Old) Neutral:- Blue (New); Black. (Old)

Earth:- Green/Yellow (New); Green (Old)

  Q. Current electricity legislation and guidance requires that all electrical equipment and installations shall at all times meet eight requirements so as to prevent danger. Name four of the eight?
    1.     Properly designed

2.     Properly constructed.

3.     Properly installed.

Properly maintained.

Properly protected.

Properly used.

Protected from ingress of moisture or of particles

Protected from foreseeable impacts.

Q> In the current electricity legislation and guidance the word danger means the risk of personal injury from five electricity related events. Name four of the five?

Electric shock.

Electric burn.

Electrical explosion or arcing.

Fire or explosion caused by electricity use.

Mechanical movement of electrical driven equipment. 

Q> Give four dangers associated with lead acid accumulators?

Very high currents may be produced.

Hydrogen Gas is produced while being recharged.

Danger of acid spills.

They tend to be very heavy and awkward to handle. 

Q> Poor lighting results in 4 well identified undesirable consequences. Can you name them?





Q> The maintenance of a well-designed lighting system at its peak efficiency can be dependent on four essential maintenance tasks. Can you name them?

Replacement of spent bulbs.

Correct bulb replacement.

Regular cleaning of lambs.

Regular cleaning of windows. 

Q> The degree of illumination required to enable any specific task to be performed with relative ease and safety depends upon five factors. Name four?

Size of object.

Speed of movement.

Duration of task.

Brightness contrasts.


Q> What is the name of the effect that makes a rotating shaft appear stationary under certain lighting conditions?

Stroboscopic effect.

Q> The electricity regulations refer to an electro-mechanical device capable of making, carrying and breaking currents under normal and abnormal circuit conditions such as those of a short circuit, what is this device called?

A circuit breaker. 

Q> If a piece of electrical apparatus is designed and constructed such that, even under fault conditions, the electrical energy within the circuits is less than the minimum ignition energy of the flammable atmosphere in which it is to operate. How would it be rated / classified?

Intrinsically safe. 

What is the purpose of Insulation Resistance Tests?

To ensure that phase and neutral conductors are not ‘leaking’ to earth. 

What is the purpose of Continuity Resistance Tests?

To ensure that where fitted ring cables (such as socket circuits) are intact. 

What is the purpose of Earth Fault Loop Impedance (EFLI) tests?

They are carried out to verify that earthing characteristics are satisfactory. 

What is the purpose of checking Tripping times?

To see if the tripping time of residual current devices (RCD) are within acceptable time limits. 

What is the purpose of protective devices in electrical circuits?

To protect against overload To protect against faults. 

Name two types of fire extinguisher that can be used on an electrical fire as described in I.S. 291: 2002?

Dry Powder


FM 200. 

I.S. 291: 2002 list two types of extinguisher that should not be used inelectrical fire! What are these?
        1.     Water2.     Foam
Q. Within the context of electrical safety what is the meaning of the term “isolation”?
          A. “Isolation” means the disconnection and separation of electrical equipment from every source of electrical energy in such a way that the disconnection and separation is secure.
Q. Give the three ways in which electricity may cause death?
          1.     Direct action (shock) on heart and respiratory organs.2.     Burns.

3.     By the involuntary action of the body as a result of shock. e.g. Fibrillation of the Heart.

Q. Flameproof equipment is designed for a number of specific gas and vapour groupings namely Group 1, 2A, 2B, 2C. This is because certain gases and vapours have properties requiring design to higher standard. Which group covers natural gas being the lowest standard requirement?
  A. Group 1.
Q. Name three types of electrical equipment which may be used in a Zone 1 classification?
         1.     Intrinsically Safe Equipment.2.     Flame Proof Equipment.

3.     Pressurized Equipment.

4.     Powder Filled Equipment.

5.     Increased Safety Equipment.

6.     Encapsulated Equipment.

Q. What type of electrical equipment is required in Zone O classification?
           A. Intrinsically Safe Equipment.
Q. What three steps should be taken after the operation of a Residual Current Device (R.C.D.)?
  1.     Check the appliance connected to the circuit breaker for fault or defect.2.     Correct the fault or defect.

3.     Re-set the circuit breaker in the positive mode.

Current legislation and guidance dealing with electrical safety requires that every circuit in excess of 125 volts supplying or intended to supply portable or transportable apparatus must be protected by what?

A mains Residual Current Device (RCD) to cut off power if leakage current to earth should exceed 30 milli amps. 

Q> It is a legal requirement that a circuit supplying a socket outlet must be protected by a residual current device having a tripping current not exceeding 30 milliamperes (mA). How does a residual current device operate?

Leakage from the electrical circuit will cause an imbalance in the current flowing from the phase conductor and returning to the neutral conductor, if this exceeds a pre-determined value usually 30 mA the power will be disconnected by the device. 

Q> What is a multiple lock out clasp used for, and what does the multiple lockout clasp ensure?

To allow each worker to fix his own lock on an isolated item of equipment

The isolated item of equipment can not be made live until all workers have withdrawn and removed the locks. 

Q. To aid the choice of electrical equipment for use in areas where flammable gas or vapours may be present such areas are classified according to the likelihood of the areas having flammable atmospheres. (a) How are such areas referred to, and (b) what is the highest risk area?

(a) Zone 0, Zone 1, Zone

(b) Zone 0


Q>To aid the choice of electrical equipment for use in areas where flammable dusts may be present such areas are classified according to the likelihood of the areas having flammable atmospheres. How are such areas referred to and what is the highest risk area of these?

(a) Zone 20, Zone 21, Zone

(b) Zone 20.  

Q>Electrical equipment for use in flammable atmospheres has to reflect its suitability for use in relation to the specific gas and vapor groupings which are designated as Group 1, 2A, 2B, 2C. This is because certain gases and vapours have properties requiring different design standards. To what group does (a) Petrol Vapor and (b) Gas encountered in coal mines belong?

(a) Group 2A

(b) Group 1. 

Q> How is “high voltage” defined in Current legislation and guidance dealing with electrical safety ?

“High voltage” means any voltage exceeding –

1000 volts alternating current,

1500 volts direct current. 

The “National Rules for Electrical Installations” frequently refer to IP Ratings for electrical equipment and fittings. What does IP stand for, and what do the two numbers that follow it refer to?

IP Stands for Index of Protection and is followed by two numerals i.e. IP44. The first numeral indicates the level of protection against physical contact with live parts of the fitting and the degree that the equipment is protected against solid foreign bodies intruding into an

The second numeral indicates the level of protection against moisture penetration. 

Q> (a) What is bonding? and (b) Why is it important?”

(a) Bonding is the process of interconnecting all exposed metalwork to eliminate voltage differences (potential) between parts of the metal work.

(b) It reduces the risk of electric shock and the risk of static electricity build up and is particularly important in livestock buildings, milking parlors and in bathrooms, etc. 

Q> The intention of periodic testing of the fixed wiring is to ensure that the system is safe for use and has not suffered damage or severe deterioration. List three tests that should be periodically undertaken on an electrical system? 

Insulation resistance tests

Continuity resistance tests

Earth fault loop impedance (EFLI) tests

Tripping times of residual current devices (RCD). 

Q> The risk of damage and the resultant injury from portable electrical equipment is higher than that of fixed appliances due to its portable nature. Before the first use during a working day, staff should make a quick visual check of the equipment they are to use or is sited in their area. List six types of situations that should be reported?

Damage to the case of the equipment

Damage to the cabling

Damage to the plug

Evidence of wires pulling out of the case or plug

Blackening of the socket

Evidence of a smell associated with hot burning plastic, rubber. 

Q. Name six types of protective devices used in an electrical circuit?
·            1.     Fuse2.     Miniature Circuit breaker (MCB)

3.     Residual Current Device (RCD)

4.     Residual Current Circuit breakers (RCCB)

5.     Residual Current Circuit breakers with Overload protection (RCBO)

6.     Magnetic Hydraulic Circuit breakers

7.     Thermal Circuit breakers

8.     Thermal Magnetic Circuit breakers

Q. What is the difference between an overload current and a fault current?
            An overload current is the application of a current greater than the design current resulting in the disruption of the circuit protective device.Fault current is one generated by the rapid discharge of energy to earth through a mechanical fault on a system resulting in a substantial rise and rapid disconnection by the circuit protective device.
Q. What two conditions can occur to the heart with electric shock, and what action should be taken for each condition?
  A. 1. Cardiac arrest, (the heart stops beating and blood is no longer

circulated). Treatment – immediate CPR.

2. Ventricular fibrillation, (the heart’s electrical activity becomes disordered) Treatment – use defibrillator followed by CPR. 

Q. Name Eight Hazards associated with Manual Metal Arc Welding – (Electrical Welding)?

Electric Shock.


Ultra-Violet Radiation



Arc – Eye

Slag Chipping in Eyes.

Chemical Cleaning of Weld.

Trailing Cables. 

Q> Under the Factories Act 1955 when is a person considered to be an adult?

At 18 years of age. 

Q> In the main can women be employed in processes connected with lead manufacture?


Q> What category of workers are most exposed to accidents?

The young and inexperienced. 

Q> What two things must you do before asking somebody under 18 years of age to work at a dangerous machine?

Instruct them in the dangers and precautions to be taken.

They must have sufficient training or be under supervision. 

Q>What is the normal definition of a child in current safety and health legislation legislation?

A person resident in the State who is under 16 years of age. 

Q> What is the normal definition of a young person in current safety and health legislation legislation?

A person who has reached 16 years of age but is less than 18 years of age. 

Q> Can the parents be held liable for the wrongful employment of a young person?

Yes, if they are aware of it. 

Q> Give another name for the ‘zone of convenient reach’?

The reach envelope. 

Tensing the muscles for extended, uninterrupted periods of time can be described as what?

Static posture or effort. 

Q> Define humidity?

It is a measurement or index of the amount of water vapour in the air.  

Q> In Human Resources (HR) terms – what is an “EAP”?

Employee Assistance Program. 

Q> What do the acronyms ‘WRULD’ and ‘RSI’ stand for?

Work related upper limb disorder.

Repetitive strain injury. 

Q>What part of the body is affected by Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

The hand. 

Q> What is “Anthropometrics”?

It is the branch of ergonomics that deals with the physical size and shape of people. 

Q> There are four factors which, when combined, can give rise to RSI. Name them?


High repetition.

Awkward posture.

Insufficient rest. 

Q>Give four possible reactions of an individual to stress?

Physical reaction.

Psychological reaction.

Emotional reaction.

Behavioral reaction. 

Q> In relation to Motivational Theories, who designed the “Hierarchy of Needs”?

Abraham Maslow. 

Q> For standing work, what is the recommended work surface height for men involved in precision work?

109cm – 110cm. 

Q. Give four environmental factors which should be considered in an ergonomic assessment?







Q> In relation to VDUs, what is the optimum lighting level that should be maintained at the workstation?

300 to 500 lux. 

Q> Name six physical characteristics of the individual that should be considered in ergonomics?

Body size

Body shape.




The senses.

Stresses and strains on muscles, joints nerves. 

Q>The word “Ergonomics” is derived from the Greek words ‘ergon’ and ‘nomos’. What do these words mean?

Ergon = work Nomos = law. 

Q> What are the main elements in the definition of bullying in the workplace according to current legislation and guidance

Repeated inappropriate behavior,

Direct or indirect,

Verbal, physical or otherwise,

One or more persons against another or others,

Occurring at the place of work and/or in the course of employment,

Could be reasonably regarded as undermining the individual’s right to dignity at work. 

Q> What is the role of the HSA with regard to Bullying at work?

The role of the Authority is a policy one assisting in terms of policy development and preventive. 

Q> Give two sources of fire?



Hot Surfaces.

Radiant Heat. 

Q> Name the elements that comprise the triangle of fire?

Fuel, Heat, and oxygen. 

Q> Name two means by which heat may be transmitted and result in a spread of fire

Radiation, Conduction, and Convection. 

Q> A flammable vapor or gas will only ignite or explode in air if the Air: Fuel ratio is in the correct proportions. How are these limits normally expressed?

L.E.L. – Lower Explosive  Limit.

U.E.L. – Upper Explosive Limit. 

Q> Give two requirements regarding fire exits?

Clearly Marked.

Open Outwards or slide.

Be Kept clear.

Be Always available. 

Q> Name two types of security fastenings acceptable on fire exit doors?

Panic Bolts.

Panic latches.

Alarm locks.

Glass Bolts.

Ordinary Ball catches. 

Q> What type of extinguisher is best suited to free flowing liquid fires?

Dry powder. 

Q> How do dry powder extinguishers extinguish fires?

By stopping chain flame reaction and smothering. 

Q> How do water type extinguishers extinguish fires?

By cooling the burning material to a point where it will not burn. 

Q> Name two fire extinguishing agents that are recommended for use on electrical fires?


Dry Powder


Q> What should you do with overalls that have become soaked with flammable solvent, what two actions do you take?

Remove at once.

Place in metal bin. 

Q>Why are oily or paint covered rags dangerous?

They may be liable to spontaneous combustion. 

Q> What action do you take if a persons clothes catch fire?

Roll them in a blanket or use a non-asphyxiant extinguisher. 

Q> How would you dispose of flammable waste in a workroom?

Put it in a closed metal bin and empty regularly. 

Q> How is an automatic sprinkler system triggered, qualify your answer?

By the heat from a fire bursting a quartzoid glass bulb thus releasing the contained water pressure towards the fire area. 

Q. Name the two types of smoke detectors?

Ionisation Detectors

Optical Detectors. 

Q> Should lifts be used as a means of escape in case of fire if they are working?

No – Lifts should never be used as a means of escape in case of fire as they could fail at any time due to fire causing power failure. 

Q> Why do air convector heaters become a fire hazard if obstructed?

If the airflow is obstructed the heater is liable to over heat. 

Q. When gas cylinders are involved in a fire, what can be done to prevent an explosion?

Remove them, or cool them down with water. 

Q> Name four types of fire extinguishing agent?

Water, Foam, CO2, Dry Powder. 

Q>If you discover a fire what action should you take?

Raise the alarm,

Get everyone out,

Attack the Fire. 

What type of extinguisher would you use on a petrol fire?

Dry Powder or foam. 

What colour should a fire exit sign be?

White symbols on a green back ground. 

What two colours are generally accepted for danger and non-danger?

Red for danger and Green for non-danger. 

Q>What two essential pieces of knowledge are necessary as regards escape in case of fire?

The sound of the alarm.

The means of escape and route to follow. 

Q> Why do (a) water and (b) CO2 put out fires?

(a) By cooling down.

(b) By excluding oxygen. 

Q> How does foam extinguish a liquid fire?

It floats on the surface and excludes oxygen. 

Q> How does a simple self-closing fire door operate?

It is held open by a fusible link, when this fuses due to heat, a weight or spring closes the door. 

Q> If you smell burning and cannot trace the source of the smell, what do you do?

Sound the alarm.

Q> Name two types of fire alarm systems?



Q> If you use a battery operated fire alarm in your home, what checks should you carry out periodically?

Press the test button weekly to check that the alarm is operational. 

Q> Why are chimney fires dangerous?

They can structurally weaken the flue liner and chimney block causing cracks to form which may allow sparks enter the house causing a fire. Soot may also fall down causing carpet fires.  

Q> Why should mirrors not be placed over fireplaces?

People especially children may be attracted to come too close to the fire where clothing may catch fire. 

Q> What is the advantage of light water over an ordinary water extinguisher?

It allows greater penetration or wetting of the fire area. 

Q> Beside the generation of smoke and heat give two other products of combustion?

Carbon Dioxide.

Carbon Monoxide. 

Which one of the following is not a compatible fire extinguishing agent with dry powder?


Inert Gas



  A high expansion foam has which one of the following expansion ratios,1. 10, 2. 50, 3. 100-150, 4. 500
·              A. (3) 100-150.
  Q. Fire blankets may be used to extinguish clothes on fire. Give two other applications in which fire blankets are effective?
            1.     As shields when approaching or passing a fire.2.     For smothering small fires.
  Q. How can burning liquid be prevented from accumulating under a pressurized storage vessel such as a large LPG tank?
·              A. The ground should be sloped away from the tank to a suitable containment area.
  Q. Why is it necessary to use a special foam if fighting an alcohol fire?
·              A. Alcohol is miscible with water, so a special Alcohol Resistant Foam has to be used.
  Q. What may happen and why if large quantities of powdered coal are stored in high stacks under dry conditions?
              A. Spontaneous combustion may occur due to the self-heating of the large surface area exposed to the oxygen in the air.
  Q. Why are fire alarm push buttons normally housed behind glass in push button units?
·              A. To protect against unintentional operation.
  Q. What do dry sprinkler systems contain?
·              A. Compressed Air or Nitrogen.
  Q. What is the key purpose of automatic roof ventilators?
·              A. To disperse heat and smoke in a fire situation.
  Q. What does the following describe. It is a self-supporting wall that prevents fire spreading from one building to another or from one section of a building to another?
    A. A Fire Wall.


Q. Name four types of fire extinguisher?

Dry powder


Carbon Dioxide.

Q. Name four risks that the hazard of fire presents to those involved either during or subsequent to the event?
·            Burns

Smoke inhalation.





Q. In addition to a fire alarm system name four other items that might be provided to improve safety during emergencies?
  Emergency lighting.Fire extinguishers.

Hose reels

Fixed extinguishers


Fire blankets

 Q> What four actions should you take if you discover a fire ?

Raise the alarm.

Get everyone out.

Call fire brigade.

Fight fire if safe to do. 

Q> Name the four important conditions for the maintenance of fire exits?

They should always be available when people are on the premises.

They should always be kept clear.

They should open outwards or slide.

They should be clearly marked. 

Q> In what four ways can spontaneous combustion occur?


Chemical interaction.

Bacterial activity.


Q> You have called out the civil fire brigade to a fire at your plant. Name four vital pieces of information you should give to the officer in-charge on his arrival?

Detail of the fire location.

Details of the fire mains on site. 

Detail of the material involved in the fire.

Details of persons trapped or missing.

Details of any special hazards involved. 

Q> You are about to use the phone to call out the emergency services. Name four vital pieces of information you should give them?

Who you are.

Where you are

What your problem is.

What assistance you need.

Details of any special hazards involved. 

Q> Name two hazards which result from fires involving polyurethane foam, as used in many furnishings?

Very rapid propagation of flame.

Dense, very toxic fumes and gases. 

Q> How would you treat a person whose clothing was on fire?

Lay the casualty down to prevent spread of flames.

Put out flames with water, sand or by wrapping in coat, blanket or rug. Do not roll the casualty along the ground as this can cause burning of unharmed areas. 

Q> What precautions should be taken when electrical apparatus has to be used in a hazardous area?

It should meet the classification required according to the hazard involved. 

Q> Is there a hazard in allowing oil to gather in a compressed air receiver and why?

Yes, an explosion is a very real possibility. 

Q> Name four ways that fire may start in a material?

By the addition of a flame or spark.

By the addition of heat. 

By chemical action.

By spontaneous combustion. 

Q>What is ignition temperature?

It is the temperature is required sufficiently to support combustion. 

Q>Why is it not safe to allow oxygen from a cylinder to flow into a workroom in which the air has become stale in order to freshen it?

It is dangerous to ventilate a room with pure oxygen, because it significantly increases the flammability of most materials. 

Q> What is the dry powder material usually used in dry powder fire extinguishers?

Sodium Bi-Carbonate. 

Q>With a dry powder fire extinguisher labelled A.B.C. What does A.B.C. mean?

That this extinguisher is recommended for Class A , Class B., and Class C. fires. 

Q. What type of extinguisher is suitable for Class A fires. Give four?
·           1.     Water.2.     Sand in bucket.

3.     Dry Powder.

4.     CO2.

5.     Foam.

Q. What type of extinguisher is suitable for Class B fires. Give four?
·           1.     Foam.2.     Dry Powder.

3.     Vaporizing Liquids

4.     CO2.

Q. What type of extinguisher is suitable for Class C fires. Give two?
          1.     Dry Powder.2.     CO2.

3.     Vaporizing Liquids.

Q. What is the difference between “stored pressure” and “gas cartridge” type extinguishers, and what pressure is in either?
  A. 1. The body of the extinguisher contains stored pressure charged to

approximately 150 p.s.i.g. when ready for service.

In the gas cartridge type extinguisher the propellant is stored in a separate cartridge at approximately 600 p.s.i.g. which pressurizes the extinguisher. 

Q. Give two advantages of CO2 extinguishers?
     1.     Non – Conductors.2.     Non Damaging.
Q. What are the three ingredients for an explosion?
  1.     Ignition source.2.     Explosive substance.

3.     Oxygen.

Q. What type of fire extinguisher would you use on a Sodium fire?
  A. Class D extinguisher for burning metals.

 Q> If cut off from means of escape from a fire in a building, what three things should you do and what should you not do?

Return to the safest point, location, or room.

Close all doors behind you.

Go to an external opening and raise the alarm.

Do not attempt to jump except under instructions from the fire brigade. 

Q> Why can C02 be dangerous to the operator of a C02 fire extinguisher?

It is an Asphyxiant. 

Q> What are the four main products of the combustion of a building?




Vapours and gases. 

Q> What gas does the plastic PVC produce when burning?

Hydrogen Chloride (HCL, Hydrochloric Acid Gas). 

Q> Wet and Dry Automatic Sprinkler Systems are examples of Fixed Fire Fighting Installations. Name two other Fixed Fire Fighting Installations?

Carbon Dioxide System, especially for electrical risks.

Inert Gas Systems, especially for computer installations. 

Q> Name four flammable metals?





Q> What material is a Fire Wall normally constructed of and what would be its normal fire resistance?

Bricks or Concrete, with a fire resistance of from three to six hours. 

Q> If a Flash Point of a liquid is reported as 10 degrees Centigrade followed by the designation C.C. What does C.C. indicate in this instance?

That the test has been carried out using a Closed Cup Flash Point test apparatus. 

Q> Where should information on the inspection and maintenance of fire safety equipment, as required by many Local Authorities, be recorded?

Fire safety register. 

Q> When planning fire evacuation procedures consideration need be given under two distinct headings, what are they?

Action to be taken on discovering a fire Action to be taken on hearing the alarm. 

Q> To be effective, a route provided for escape must commence at the point of exit from a room or area and continue to the point of discharge into the open air. What else should they be?

Clearly defined

Adequately lit

Clearly identifiable along its total length

Free from any obstructions that may impede free movement. 

Q> What is meant by upper and lower limits of flammability?

The highest and lowest percentage concentration of flammable vapor with air which will ignite. 

Q> What is meant by Class A, Class B and Class C fires, and name an extinguishing agent for each class of fire?

Class A Fires involving solid materials, extinguishing agent Water. Class B Fires involving flammable or combustible liquids, extinguishing agent dry powder or

Class C Fires involving energized electrical equipment, extinguishing agent dry powder or carbon dioxide. 

Q> What two essential fire precautions apply to hoist and lift shafts inside a building?

They must be completely enclosed except at the top with fire resistant materials.

The shaft must be easily vented at the top. 

Q> Name six types of flame arresters?

Wire Gauze.

Perforated sheet

Perforated block. 

Crimped Ribbon.

Perforated Plate.

Packed Bed.

Parallel Plate.

Ceramic Pebbles or Rings. 

Q>Name six aspects of training which should be stressed to personnel expected to use fire extinguishers in the event of a fire?

The method of sounding the fire alarm.

Recognition of extinguisher contents.

The types of fires and the extinguisher best suited.

The hazard of using an inappropriate extinguisher.

The importance of self preservation.

Practical use of each type of extinguisher. 

Q> Describe the six steps in the use of a fire blanket on a flammable liquid fire?

Open the blanket fully.

Drape it in front of you to protect you from radiant heat.

Protect the hands by turning the top edge over them

Hold the blanket so as to protect your face.

Advance on the fire and drape the blanket over it in one quick motion.

Leave the blanket in position until the fire and its container have cooled. 

Q> Name three of the relevant characteristics of flammable substances that are considered in designating an explosive atmosphere?

The density relevant to air.

The flash point.

The ignition temperature.

The boiling point.

The upper and lower explosive limits. 

Q> B.L.E.V.E. is short for Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion. Where may this condition occur, and what is the chief danger resulting from this occurrence?

Whenever a cylinder containing flammable gas/vapor under pressure is exposed to great heat.

If the cylinder bursts a fire ball explosion is created. 

Q> Name five areas of consideration in designing explosion control into plant systems?

Segregation of plant.

Explosion relief by means of vents.

Flame arresters.

High speed isolation valves.

Explosion supression. 

Q> Name three steps that may be taken to restrict the spread and effects of an explosion where such a liability to explosion exists?

The plant must be so constructed so as to withstand the pressure produced.

Provision of chokes, baffles, vents.

Explosion supression.

Flame arresters.

Provision of other equally effective means to restrict the spread and effects of the explosion. 

Q> In a fire situation, what precautions should you take if you are opening the door? Give one.

(i) Guard against pressure in the closed room due to expansion of hot gases,

(ii) Use the door or associated wall as a shield against the emerging flames and smoke. 

Q> Describe the breathing apparatus conditions known as “Demand” and “Positive pressure”?

Demand Condition: In this condition the demand valve meters air into the face piece when the wearer breathes in.

Positive Pressure: In this condition the face piece is under slight positive pressure at all times. Hence fume and smoke is prevented from entering the face piece, unlike demand which could allow fume and smoke into the face piece. 

Q> What is the average consumption of air in a compressed air breathing apparatus?

40 Liters per minute. 

Q> As distinct from a fire what are the three ingredients for an explosion?

Ignition source.

Explosive substance.


Q> What substances should the valves of gas cylinders be kept free of and why?

Oil and Grease, as they can react chemically causing an explosion. 

Q> Name three of the principal functions of a automatic sprinkler system with regard to fire fighting?

To detect the fire.

To sound the alarm.

To attack the fire.

To prevent the spread. 

Q> What is important when selecting the fan motors for a fume or gas extraction unit and why?

To determine if the gas or fumes are flammable, and that the fan motor is properly electrically classified for use with same. 

Q>When fire fighting by use of an extinguisher, give three important considerations for the extinguisher operator?

1. Fire extinguisher contents are very limited, they empty in less than a minute.

Have a second and third extinguisher provided while the first is being dischatrged.

Avoid getting trapped by the fire. 

Q> In a fire situation, if you are approaching a closed door, how do you determine if there is a fire beyond the door? Give three.

(i) Look for smoke percolating between the door and the frame,

Look for signs of blistering paint work,

Feel the door and door handle to see if they are hot. 

Q> Name 6 precautions necessary in a plant where explosive or flammable dust may accumulate?

Enclose Plant.

Remove dust.

Exclude sources of ignition/static.

Provision of chokes and/or baffles.

Provision of explosion vents.

Provision of explosion supression.

Provision of an inert gas blanket.

Wet down the dust. 

Q>What constitutes an explosive atmosphere?

A mixture of a flammable gas, vapor, dust or mist with air that can be exploded by arcs, sparks, or materials at high temperature. 

Q>What is meant by the term Ignition Temperature of a gas or vapor?

It is the minimum temperature under specified conditions at which a substance will ignite in the presence of air without an external spark or flame.

 Q> What is meant by the term Flash Point of a liquid?

It is the minimum temperature at which the liquid will give off a vapor which forms an explosive mixture with air near its surface. 

Q> What standard of fire prevention are needed for chemical plants and highly flammable areas? Name three.

1. The buildings should be of high fire resisting materials.

There should be double doors and sprinklers in appropriate areas.

There should be frequent removal of floor sweepings and dust.

There should be adequate fire fighting equipment.

The workers should be trained in fire procedures and fire fighting. 

Q> Give three disadvantages of dry powder extinguishers?

1. The powder tends to pack over a period.

They may absorb moisture from the atmosphere.

They have limited cooling properties. 

Q> Give six causes of overheating generated by mechanical friction?

1. Insufficient lubrication.

Insufficient cooling.

Worn bearings.

Malalignment of shafts.

Slipping belts or pulleys.

Overloading of machines.

Insufficient clearance between moving parts.

Vibration, build up of material around moving parts. 

Q> Industrial dusts have two hazards, health and explosion risk. Name six techniques used to avoid or control dust hazards?

1. Eliminate: Stop the dust at source.

Substitute: Use alternative material. 

Segregate or enclose: Keep seperate.

Wet Methods: Keep dust down with water.

Ventilation: Exhaust or negative pressure.

Filtration & Disposal: Capture and remove. 

Q> Name six common causes for the ignition of dust as a result of factory processes?

1. Welding or Burning.

Sparks from Electrical equipment.

Hot Surfaces of machinery.

Static electricity.

Spontaneous combustion.

Naked flames.

Non-Enforcement of No Smoking rules. 

Q> What three essential precautions are necessary with elevators and screw conveyors, where there is danger of explosive dust concentrations?

1. All inspection doors should be kept shut.

Correctly sized explosion reliefs should be fitted where necessary.

Chokes or baffles should be installed in screw conveyors. 

Q> What two types of lighting can be used in Silos or Bins, where there is danger of explosive dust concentrations?

 A permanent lighting system with dust proof fittings.

Approved flame-proof flash lamps Certified for Dusty Environments. 

Q> Name three of the four main requirements that will ensure a fire extinguisher will meet its requirements?

1. Suitable for task.

Adequate capacity.

Readily available.

Properly maintained. 

Q> What information and training should be provided to new employees when discussing fire safety? Name six.

 Policy on smoking, electrical equipment (switching off at night), etc.

How to raise the alarm

Actions to be taken on discovering a fire

How to call the fire brigade (which staff members to contact to do this)

Location and use of escape routes

Assisting disabled persons, visitors and others during evacuation

Location and use of fire extinguishers. 

Q. Fire extinguishing equipment refers to any appliance, either fixed or portable that is provided for automatic or manual use in fire List six pieces of fire extinguishing equipment?

1. Fire extinguisher

Hose reels

Fire blankets

Fire hydrants

Dry risers

Gaseous systems

Sprinkler systems. 

Q. Many Local Authorities require all buildings to keep a Fire Safety Register which should be kept up to List eight items of information that should be recorded in the Fire Safety Register?

Name and Address

Telephone number.

Owner / Hirer / lessee

The names of responsible managers and staff.

The names of persons allotted specific responsibilities

Staff instruction and training

Details of fire evacuation drills

The type location and number of fire protection appliances

Details of inspection and maintenance of fire protection equipment.

Details of person responsible for maintenance of fire protection equipment.

Details of all fire incidents, false alarms, spillages of flammable liquids or other dangerous occurrence. 

Q> Name 8 items to be inspected on a fire audit in an industrial premises?

 Check escape routes available and unobstructed.

Check fire exit doors are clear and easily opened.

Check fire alarm points clearly marked and unobstructed.

Check fire appliances are in working order & unobstructed.

No accumulations of flammable waste.

Flammable liquids are in approved storage,

Gas cylinders not in use are in a safe area.

Check no unauthorized hot work in progress.

Check fire doors are closed.

Check the sprinkler system is operative. 

Q> Name 8 precautions necessary in a plant where explosive or flammable dust may accumulate?

Enclose Plant.

Remove Dust.

Exclude sources of ignition/static. Provision of chokes and/or baffles.

Provision of explosion vents.

Provision of explosion suppression.

Provision of an inert gas blanket.

Wet down the dust.

To be continued in part 3

HSE Questionnaire Part 1

  • What is an Accident?

        It is an unplanned happening. 

  • What is an ‘incident’?

        An incident is an unplanned event with the potential to lead to an accident. 

  • What is a ‘hazard’?

        A hazard is anything with the potential to cause harm. 

  • Why remove your gloves before you remove your goggles?

 To prevent contamination of the face or eyes by a substance or substances that are on your gloves. 

  • Is running a suitable pace for a factory or workshop?
    1. – You should always walk. 
  • Give two reasons for not piling a trolley high with goods?
  1. Obscures Vision
  2. Unstable
  3. May cause back 
  • Should accident prevention be left to the Safety Manager as the representative of management, and the supervisory staff in a place of work?

           No – It is the responsibility of all concerned in the workplace. 

  • Has a Safety Officer or Safety Manager a responsibility to see that Safety measures are complied with?

            Yes As an agent of management with delegated responsibility. 

  • Give two reasons why all accidents should be reported immediately?
  1. So that an investigation to determine the cause may be instituted.
  2. So that injuries may be attended to. 
  • What two main precautions must be taken when using a safety belt?
  1. It should be fastened to a secure point.
  2. The free fall should be kept to a minimum. 
  • Why should all minor injuries be reported? Give two reasons?
  1. To prevent Reoccurrence.
  2. In case of litigation.
  3. To prevent sepsis. 
  • What should you do if you receive any injury?

            Report to the First Aid Department. 

  • What should a new employee be told regarding all minor injuries?

           They must be reported at once, to whom and where. 

  • Give two reasons for the investigation of an accident?
  1. Find the cause,
  2. Prevent reoccurrence. 
  • Give two reasons why you should not wear a ring while working on a machine?
  1. It may increase the risk of an accident.
  2. It may make a minor accident worse. 
  • Why investigate an incident even if no accident occurred?

        To prevent the recurrence of a situation where somebody may be injured. 

  • Why keep a record of all accidents, however small?
  1. Accident prevention.
  2. In case of litigation. 
  • Why wear safety Boots or Shoes?

         To prevent injury to toes and insteps. 

  • If an employee is always having minor accidents and incidents. What action should you take?

Move him to a less hazardous job. 

  • What responsibility has an employee to avoid accidents?

He must work safely and use all the protective equipment provided for him. 

  • What are the two principal responsibilities of an employer in relation to accident prevention?
  1. To provide a safe place of work.
  2. To provide safe conditions of work. 
  • If a member of the public is injured in a supermarket because of the work activity there and must receive medical treatment, is the accident reportable to the Health and Safety Authority?


  • In the safety context, how is “rough boisterous behavior” referred to?


  • “The application of engineering techniques to reduce accidents and hazards”, what is the normal term used for this approach?

              Loss Prevention. 

  • In the early days of space shuttle technology, a space shuttle exploded on takeo What was the name of the space shuttle?


  • If a child has an accident at school and must receive medical treatment, is the accident reportable to the Health and Safety Authority?


  • Management has been known to delegate Responsibility and Authority for Accident Are they correct in doing this, qualify your answer?

No – They are not correct in doing this. You can only delegate Authority, you cannot delegate Responsibility, the buck still stops at the Chief Executive’s desk. 

  • The human senses, Sight, Hearing, Smell, Feel, and Taste can all be used as a warning Give an example how four of them can be used?

Sight: – Notices, Signs, Signals, Labelling and notes.

 Hearing: – Alarms, Shouts, etc.

 Smell: – Odor Detection, Rotten etc.

Feel: – Vibration, Temperature, Sharpness, etc.                                                                                                                                                                                                                  Taste: – Foul tasting, Rotten, etc. 

  • Name four areas into which accident costs may be classified?
  1. Wage Losses.
  2. Production losses.
  3. Medical Costs.
  4. Property Damage.
  5. Investigation Costs.
  6. Insurance Costs. 
  •  Give four consequences of an accident?
  1. Pain and Suffering.
  2. Loss of work and wages
  3. Loss of production.
  4. Damage to plant.
  5. Nonproductive losses. 
  • What are the immediate and ultimate objectives of an accident                                investigation? Qualify your answer?

The Immediate Objective – is to get accurate information about the cause and circumstances of the accident.

The Ultimate Objective – is to prevent future reoccurrences of similar accidents, to uncover new hazards, and to devise methods to control these hazards.

  • State four methods that can be utilized to prevent new workers to an area          suffering accident?
  1. Train them in the new work location process
  2. Put them in the charge of an experienced
  3. Instruct them in the dangers and the precautions to
  4. Ensure that they have adequate 
  • Give four safety points about clothing when working near running machinery?
  1. Single piece.
  2. Short
  3. Close
  4. Hip or inside pocket
  5. No loose tie. 
  Name four ways whereby one could prevent accidents?
·              1.      Good Housekeeping.2.      Good Maintenance.

3.      Secure Guarding.

4.      Cleanliness.

5.      Controlling environmental conditions.

  Is it necessary to report the collapse of a building even if nobody is injured?
·              Yes. A report must be made to The Health and Safety Authority.
·   In 1984, 34 people died in a gas explosion in a water pumping station in Abbey stead in the U.K. What gas was responsible for causing the explosion?
·                     Methane.
·   The Directorate General of the European Commission dealing with Employment, Industrial relations, and Social Affairs in 1993 published guidance for small and medium sized enterprises in respect of health and safety protection at work. The guidance outlines the main accident risks mentioned in small and medium sized enterprises in terms percentage occurrence. Name the top four risks identified?
·              1.      Cuts.2.      Handling Operations.

3.      Falls.

4.      Crushing. 


  •       The Directorate General of the European Commission dealing with Employment, Industrial relations, and Social Affairs in 1993 published guidance for small and medium sized enterprises in respect of health and safety protection at work. The guidance lists four categories of workers being more at risk of accident than Name the four?
  1. Foreign Employees.
  2. Young persons and new recruits
  3. Workers aged over 45
  4. Temporary workers
  • The Directorate General of the European Commission dealing with Employment, Industrial relations, and Social Affairs in 1993 published guidance for small and medium sized enterprises in respect of health and safety protection at work. The guidance refers to the hidden costs of occupational accidents and specifically names Can you name the four?
  1. Wage costs.
  2. Extra personnel administration
  3. Material
  4. Other costs (loss adjusters, lawyers, fines ). 
  • What is (a) A hazard and (b) A risk?

(a) Anything which might cause harm.

(b) Likelihood that harm could occur from a particular hazard. 

  • What are six of the most important duties of a safety officer?
  1. To ensure that statutory safety requirements are recognized and dealt  with by line management.
  2. The improvement of safety related working conditions.
  3. Monitoring the appropriateness and wearing of safety clothing and equipment.
  4. Training in accident
  5. Keeping management advised on safety issues.
  6. Investigation and recording of accidents.
  7. To contribute to the effectiveness of the consultation mechanism.
  8. To provide support to management on Health and Safety  issues.
  • When a fatal accident has occurred in a factory, what are the three conditions necessary for allowing the place of fatality to be disturbed?
  1. The expiration of three clear days after notification to the authority.
  2. The place has been visited and inspected by an inspector or with the consent of an inspector
  3. The disturbance was necessary for securing the safety of persons. 
  • Power tools feature in more accidents than any other factor, in particular grinders and Name the three most important measures to be taken for your personal safety when using grinders?
  1. Wear goggles.
  2. Check guard is appropriate
  3. Use ear protection. 
  •  Give three reasons for a supervisor to be concerned with the safety of his                      work force?
  1. He is responsible for the Health and Safety of his work force.
  2. To increase the moral wellbeing of his/her work force.
  3. To minimize accidents, pain and suffering, wage loss etc. 
  •  Who should have the prime responsibility of investigating an accident, and                                 who should not investigate an accident?
  1. The Safety Officer, who is trained and equipped for accident investigation. If possible, he/she should be accompanied by a member of the safety consultation mechanism, or Safety Representative.
  2. The manager/supervisor/foreperson of the area where the accident happened. They may be involved emotionally or by sense of guilt. 
  •  The Directorate General of the European Commission dealing with Employment, Industrial Relations and Social Affairs in 1996 published guidance on risk assessment at This guidance indicates that a risks assessment involves five discreet steps. Can you name three of them?
  1. Hazard identification.
  2. Identification of workers at risk.
  3. Estimation of risk.
  4. Consider risk elimination.
  5. Introduction of further prevention or reduction measures. 
  •  The Directorate General of the European Commission dealing with Employment, Industrial Relations and Social Affairs in 1996 published guidance on risk assessment at work. The guidance indicates that workplaces can be broadly categorized into three groups. Can you name them?
  1. Fixed establishments, e.g. offices, schools, factories.
  2. Workplaces subject to change, g. building sites, docks, shipbuilding.
  3. Mobile workplaces g. transport facilities, etc. 
  •  The Directorate General of the European Commission dealing with Employment, Industrial Relations and Social Affairs in 1996 published guidance on risk assessment at The guidance establishes six principles of the hierarchy of prevention of risks. Can you name three of them?
  1. Avoiding risks.
  2. Substituting the dangerous by the non-or less dangerous.
  3. Combating risks at source.
  4. Applying collective rather than individual protective measures.
  5. Adapting to technical progress.
  6. Seeking to ensure improvement in protection levels. 
  • Badly stored and damp straw can expose farmers and stockmen to what disease?

   Farmers Lung. (Pulmonary hypersensitivity). 

  • Is the mercury used in thermometers often found in the home and on the farm toxic?

Yes – mercury vapor is quite toxic and care should be taken if breakage occurs to ensure a full and effective clean up. 

  • What are Aldrin, Dieldrin, and Endrin?

They are Pesticides, which are Highly Toxic. 

  • At what age can a person on a farm be instructed on the safe operation of a tractor?
  • 14 years (Child safe Farm Safety Leaflet). 
  • End stacking of covered round bales in agriculture should not exceed a height of how many times the bales diameter?

Three times the bales diameter. 

  • In pyramid stacking of big round bales in agriculture more than how many layers high is not recommended to stack?

    Four Layers. 

  • In end stacking of bales the stacks will be more stable if the height does not exceed how many times the shortest base dimension?
    • 1.5 or 1+1/2 times the shortest base dimension. 
  • In what two situations is it recommended to stack below the recommended height of agricultural bales?
  1. Where there is regular access by people near stacks.
  2. Where excessive wind loading is likely. 
  • What does the acronym PTO stand for?

      Power take off. 

  • In relation to guarding of PTO shafts, the guard tube should be slightly shorter than the appropriate drive shaft telescopic halves by not more than:
  1. 15mm, 2. 25mm, 3. 35mm. Choose one?


  • Both the tractor PTO shield and the power input connection guard must overlap the PTO shaft guard by how much 10mm, 2. 30mm, 3. 50mm. Choose one?


  • Pesticide storage should be located what distance away from straw, hay, diesel, paints, fertilizers etc.?

At least four metres 

  • .What is the quantity of liquid that bunds for containment of any leakage or spillage of chemicals on the farm should be able to hold?

110% of the largest tank or 25% of the total storage capacity, whichever is the greater. 

  • .Give the name for the range of diseases carried naturally by animals which can affect humans?


  • Name two ways in which hazardous substances, sheep dip for example, can enter the
  1. Through the skin (absorption)
  2. By swallowing (ingestion)
  3. By breathing in vapor or aerosol (inhalation). 
  • List four articles of personal protective equipment that should be worn by workers involved in dipping sheep?
    1. Non-lined synthetic rubber gloves
  1. Wellington boots
  2. Waterproof leggings or trousers made of nitrile or PVC
  3. Waterproof coat or a bib apron made of nitrile or PVC over a boiler suit or similar
  4. A face shield.
  • In what circumstances should respiratory protective equipment be used when dipping sheep. Give two?
    1. When cleaning up spillage, in a confined space;
  1. When dipping inside a building or other enclosed area;
  2. When working with freshly dipped sheep in still air conditions.
  • Give four general requirements for grain stores?
    1. They should be:
      1. Dry
      2. Well ventilated
      3. Vermin proof
      4. Constructed with reinforced concrete 
  • What IP (Index of Protection) electrical rating is recommended for outdoor floodlights on farms?
  • Name two ways in which a shotgun can be carried safely when not in use?
    1. Shotgun unloaded and ‘broken’ over the arm.
    2. Shotgun unloaded and carried on the shoulder, trigger guard uppermost and muzzles sloping upwards and in a safe direction.
  • Give the name of the poisonous gas that is emitted when slurry is agitated?
    1. Hydrogen Sulphide.
  • In relation to cattle crushes, outline four safety considerations that should be taken into account?
    1. Locking front gate and yoke to hold animal’s head firmly.
  1. Rump rail, chain or bar to minimise forward and backward movement of the animal.
  2. The crush should be secured to the ground or if mobile, to a vehicle.
  3. Be positioned to allow adequate space to work safely with good lighting.
  4. Gates should be well maintained to reduce risk of strain or back injury.
  5. Slip resistant flooring.
  • If you were told a solution was pH 4. Would it be acid or alkaline?


  • If you were told a solution was pH 11. Would it be acid or alkaline?


  • If you were told a solution was pH 7. Would it be acid or alkaline?


  • What is Paraquat?
    1. It is one of the most lethal poisons known and is commonly used as a weed killer. There is no known antidote and most cases are fatal.    
  • Give two reasons why chemical containers should be clearly marked with an approved code?
    1. To identify the contents.
  1. To indicate which are hazardous.
  2. To signal necessary precautions.
  3. To comply with regulations.
  • Is the sniffing of chemicals a safe means of identification of them?
    1. Chemicals should never be sniffed as a means of identification, as some chemicals can be harmful even below the threshold of smell. 
  • Give two possible hazards that may be encountered by people using Epoxy Resins?
    1. Hazardous Fumes.
  1. Flammable
  2. Dermatitis. 
  • Name two essential things you should do before working on a pipeline?
    1. Isolate it.
  1. Drain
  2. Clean
  3. Determine. 
  • How would you neutralize spilt acid?
    1. Use an alkali or plenty of water. 
  • Is Carbon tetrachloride a safe cleaning fluid, qualify your answer?
    1. No, it is toxic. 
  • To what height should a fixed vessel containing a dangerous material be fenced?
    1. 3 feet or 0.92 m.
  • Name two measures that should be provided to immediately limit the effect of an exposure to corrosive liquids?
    1. Means of drenching persons with cold water.
    2. Eye wash bottles. 
  • In a mixture of Petrol and water, which liquid will be on top?
    1. Petrol. 
  • In a mixture of Alcohol and water, which liquid will be on top?
    1. Neither, they mix. 
  • In a mixture of Mercury and water, which liquid will be on top?
    1. Water. 
  • In safety circles what does P.P.E. mean?
    1. Personal Protective Equipment. 
  • What does the risk phrase R45 mean?
    1. May cause cancer. 
  • What does the risk phrase R40 mean?
    1. Possible risk of irreversible effect. 
  • What does the risk phrase R61 mean?
    1. May cause harm to the unborn child. 
  • What is the meaning of the term T.W.A. explain your answer?
    1. Time Weighted Average. – It is a measure of the average exposure to a chemical agent for a conventional 8 hour day/ 40 hour week. 
  • What is the term used to express the airborne concentration of substances and conditions under which it is believed that most workers may be repeatedly exposed day after day without adverse effect?
    1. Threshold Limit Value. 
  • Where clothes contaminated with a toxic substance have to be laundered, what should be done before they are sent to the laundry?
    1. They should be detoxified before being set to the laundry. 
  • How would you describe a substance which may on contact with living tissue destroy it, and what sign is used to indicate this substance?
    1. Corrosive This is depicted by a test tube pouring drops of liquid onto a material with fumes rising from the material. 
  • How would you describe a substance which if ingested or inhaled may be deemed more than harmful and an irritant in terms of harming you, and what sign is used to indicate this substance?
    1. Toxic or Poisonous – This is depicted by Skull and crossbones. 
  • How would you describe a substance which may on contact with flame, heat, or spark, burst into flame and what sign is used to indicate this substance?
    1. Flammable – This is depicted by tongues of flames. 
  • What four precautions must be taken before allowing repairs to proceed on an unidentified pipeline in a chemical plant?
    1. Identify the line and its contents.
  1. Isolate and depressurize the line.

       3.Drain and flush the line.

4.Gas free the line if necessary.

5.Issue a permit to work to cover the specific repair. 

  • Give the meaning of the four following chemical industry terms, Aqueous, Immiscible, Inert, and Emulsion?
    1. Aqueous: – Contains Water.
    2. Immiscible:- Does not mix.
    3. Inert:- Non reactive.
    4. Emulsion:- Suspension in liquid. 
  • Give four possible hazards associated with the use of gas cylinders?
    1. Some gases are stored at high pressure.
  1. Leaks of flammable or toxic
  2. Gas cylinders exposed to high temperature.
  3. Liquid flow from acetylene cylinders.
  4. Lack of Cylinder identification.
  5. Handling and transporting heavy cylinders. 
  • Give four ways by which poisons may enter the body?
    1. Ingestion.
    2. Inhalation.
    3. Absorption.
    4. Injection. 
  • Give four ways by which you may express the concentration of air contaminants?
    1. Parts per Million.
  1. Milligrams per liter
  2. Percentage by volume.
  3. Milligrams per Cubic meter. 
Q. What is the % oxygen in the air?
·            A. 21%
· Q. What are the safe oxygen limits for entry to a confined space without an air supply?
·            A. Not less than 19% but it is important to know what has reduced the oxygen


  Q. Name a common solvent which reacts violently with Bromine?
·             A. Acetone.
·   Q. What would you use to treat a bromine spillage?
·              A. 10% Sodium Thiosulphate.
·   Q. What gas can be formed if acid comes in contact with Sodium Cyanide?
·              A. Hydrogen Cyanide.
·   Q. What is the term used to describe substances which pose a hazard to the environment?
·              A. Ecotoxic
·          .   Q. Acute toxicity tests give data on the effects of a short-term exposure to a substance. What is the most commonly quoted test of acute toxicity?
·              A. LD 50 (Lethal Dose 50) in mg/kg.
·   Q. What is the word used to describe a chemical reaction which absorbs heat?
·              A. Endothermic Reaction.
·   Q. What is the word used to describe a chemical reaction which gives out heat?
·              A. Exothermic Reaction.
·   Q. The OEL (8Hr) for Phenol is 2 ppm and is followed by a “skin” designation. What does this mean?
·              A. A potential exposure route is via skin absorption including mucous membranes and eyes.
·   Q. There has been much media attention focused on the risks associated with Organophosphorous compounds used in connection with a particular work activity. Can you name the activity?
·              A. Sheep Dips used to control parasitic problems in sheep.
·   Q. Benzene, which is a known human carcinogen, is found in concentrations up to 1% in a material in wide scale daily use. Can you name the material?
·              Petrol. 
  • Many dangerous materials are required by European Community Directives to have a Tactile Warning of Danger on their packaging. What is meant by this and whom does it aid?
    1. A roughened or embossed area which when touched by a blind or partially sighted person alerts them to the dangerous nature of the material. 
  • What is the difference between hazard and hazardous?
    1. a) Hazard is the potential to cause harmful effects,
    2. b) Hazardous means potentially harmful. 
  • What is the difference between toxic and toxicity?
    1. a) Toxic means the ability to cause harmful health effects,
    2. b) Toxicity is a measure of the degree to which something is toxic. 
  • Three of the following gases are flammable, name them?
  1. Acetylene.
  2. Carbon
  3. Carbon Monoxide.
  4. Chlorine.
  5. Chloroethane
  6. Chlorotetrafluromethane.A.1, 3 & 5. 
  • Three of the following gases are flammable, name them?
  1. Ethylene
  2. Phosgene
  3. Hydrogen chloride.
  4. Hydrogen Cyanide.
  5. Hydrogen Oxide.
  6. Propylene.
  7. A>1, 4 & 6. 
  • Three of the following gases are flammable, name them?
  1. Ammonia.
  2. Butane.
  3. Chlorodifluoromethane
  4. Cyclopropane.
  5. Dichlorodifluoromethane
  6. Helium.
  7. A>1, 2 & 4. 
  • Name three of the factors on which the severity of a chemical burn depends?
    1. Corrosiveness of the chemical.
  1. Concentration of the chemical.
  2. Temperature of the chemical.
  3. Duration of contact.
  4. Area or extent of the burn. 
  • The term LD 50 is often recorded in data dealing with toxic chemicals. What does it signify?
    1. Lethal Dose – 50% i.e. the dose that killed 50% of the test animals. 
  • The term S.T.E.L. is used in relation to the amount of Chemical Exposure of Persons. What does it mean and what periods are involved?
    1. Short Term Exposure Limit.
    2. 15 Minute Periods. 
  • Occupational Exposure Limits (OEL’s) are normally expressed in terms of applying to either short or longer times of exposure. What are the two time periods that may be involved?
    1. 15 Minutes or 8. 
  • Industrial solvents have many uses. Give the 2 most common hazards to a person you might expect, giving a reason in each case associated with these solvents?
    1. Fire Risk Solvents can be very volatile and vapors easily attain their flammable range.
    2. Damage to Health. They may be Toxic, Narcotic, Irritant, or have other systemic effects.
  • What is a fume cupboard?
    1. A special ventilated and enclosed area in which laboratory work with harmful gases and vapors can be carried out safely. 
  • State the correct procedure for diluting concentrated sulphuric acid with water, and explain the hazards should this procedure be reversed?
    1. Add the acid slowly to the water while stirring continuously.
    2. If water is added to the acid an Exothermic (Heat Releasing) Reaction occurs. This can be violent if the water is added rapidly.
  • A cryogenic fluid is one whose vapour must be cooled below room temperature before it can be liquefied by an increase in pressure. Which if any of the following substances are cryogenic fluids?
  1. Hydrogen
  2. Nitrogen
  3. Oxygen…A> All of them. 
  • A cryogenic fluid is one whose vapor must be cooled below room temperature before it can be liquefied by an increase in pressure. How many if any, of the following are cryogenic fluids?
  1. Carbon Monoxide
  2.  Carbon dioxide
  3. Ozone.A> All of them. 
  • Both Sodium and Phosphorus ignite spontaneously in air. How should they be stored, and can they be stored together?
    1. Sodium must be stored under paraffin, Phosphorus under They should not be stored near each other as confusion would be dangerous – Sodium reacts violently with water. 
  • What do you understand by the following terms (a) Acute Toxicity

(b) Chronic Toxicity?

  1. (a) Acute Toxicity refers to the situation where a substance produces harmful effects quickly i.e. Seconds, Minutes, hours.

(b) Chronic Toxicity refers to the situation where a substance produces harmful effects in a long period of time i.e. Months or years. 

  • Bromine is regarded as a particularly dangerous chemical in the laboratory. Give three reasons for this assumption?
    1. High Density.
  1. Highly corrosive.
  2. Reacts Violently with many materials.
  3. Can be absorbed through the skin. 
  • Name six hazards that could be associated with a leak of liquid from an unidentified overhead pipe line?
    1. It could be corrosive.
  1. It could give off toxic fumes.
  2. It could be flammable.
  3. It could scald.
  4. It could create a slipping hazard.
  5. It may cause an electrical short circuit.
  6. It may react chemically with material on the floor. 
  • Name three conditions in which a chemical agent may exist in industry, from which toxic or corrosive or flammable risks may ensue?
    1. Gases – Gas Cylinders, Compressors etc.
  1. Vapors – Solvents, Paint, Dry Cleaning
  2. Aerosols – Spraying Liquids
  3. Liquids – Spills, or Splashes
  4. Dusts – Weighing Powders, Sampling. 
  • When Threshold Limit Values are given on a data sheet for a substance, give two important facts that must not be assumed?
    1. The T.L.V. is not an index of relative Toxicity.
    2. The T.L.V. does not indicate the relative hazardous nature of a substance. 
  • What hazards result from a mercury spill, and how should these hazards be dealt with?
    1. Mercury vapor, which is highly toxic, exists in the air above the spill, hence it is a significant respiratory hazard.
    2. The mercury should be collected with appropriate equipment or chemically neutralized.
  • What is the maximum level of combustible gas permitted in the area where a hot work permit is in operation?
    1. Not more than 20% of lower flammable limit.
    2. Not exceeding relevant Occupational Exposure Limit. 
  • Which if any, of the following six materials can ignite when in contact with water?
  1. Potassium
  2. Sodium chloride
  3. Sodium
  4. Mercury
  5. Silicon carbide.
  6. Sodium cyanide
    1. A 1 &3 
The Saint Andrew’s Cross (X) symbol with a dotted i associated is anindicator of a substance being explicitly less hazardous than a?

(1) Toxic Substance.

(2) Flammable Substance.

(3) Corrosive Substance.

      A. (3) Corrosive Substance.
Q. What is the full name of the regulations relating to chemicals?
  A. The “Safety, Health and Welfare at Work (Chemical Agents) Regulations, 2001” (S.I. 619 of 2001).
Q. What does OELV stand for and how is it defined within the 2001 regulations?
  (a)   “occupational exposure limit value”(b)  means, unless otherwise specified, the limit of the time-weighted average of the concentration of a chemical agent in the air within the breathing zone of a worker in relation to a specified reference period, as approved by the Authority.
What is the difference between (a) carcinogen, (b) carcinogenic and(c) carcinogenicity?
  (a)   A Carcinogen is a substance that can cause cancer.(b)  Carcinogenic means able to cause cancer.

(c)   Carcinogenicity is the ability of a substance to cause cancer.

The Chemical Agents Regulations 2001 oblige the employer to determine which hazardous substances are present in the workplace and assess the risk to employees and others, resulting from the presence of these chemical agents. What specific actions must the employer take. Name three?
         1.     Prevent and control exposure to hazardous chemical agents2.     Implement specific protection and prevention measures

3.     Make arrangements to deal with accidents, incidents and emergencies

4.     Ensure that employees are properly informed, trained and supervised.

Q. List six possible health effects of hazardous substances?
  1.     Sensitization2.     Asthma

3.     Skin irritation or dermatitis

4.     Cancer

  1. Poisoning
  2. Burns
  3. Heritable genetic damage
  4. Fertility impairment
  5. Harm to the unborn child
  6. Loss of consciousness
  7. Eye irritation.


  • There are two different types of occupational sensitization: skin and respiratory. List three typical symptoms of each?
    1. Typical symptoms of skin sensitivity are:-
      1. swelling,
      2. redness,
      3. itching,
      4. pain,
      5. Blistering.

Sensitization of the respiratory system may result in symptoms similar to a severe asthmatic attack. These symptoms include:-

  1. wheezing,
  2. difficulty in breathing,
  3. chest tightness,
  4. coughing,
  5. shortness of breath. 
  • What is meant by Health Surveillance as defined in the 2001 Chemical Agents Regulations?
    1. The assessment of an individual employee to determine the state of health of that individual, as related to exposure to specific chemical agents at work and includes biological monitoring. 
  • What must a user of lead paint in any country do?
    1. A>The user of the lead paint in any country needs to justify that they are using the paint to restore or maintain a work of art or historic building. 
  • The Safety Data Sheet (SDS) is the EC term for the document giving detailed health and safety information about a chemical. Current legislation requires a defined format containing 16 obligatory headings. List eight of the headings?
    1. Identification of the substance/preparation and of the company/undertaking;
  1. Hazards identification;
  2. Composition/information on ingredients;
  3. First-aid measures;
  4. Fire-fighting measures;
  5. Accidental release measures;
  6. Handling and storage;
  7. Exposure controls/personal protection;
  8. Physical and chemical properties;
  9. Stability and reactivity;
  10. Toxicological information;
  11. Ecological information;
  12. Disposal considerations;
  13. Transport information
  14. Regulatory information
  15. Other information. 
  • In current CPL legislation there are 15 categories of classification of a dangerous preparation. List eight of these categories?
    1. A>In accordance with the classification requirements of these Regulations, a dangerous substance or preparation must be classified as one or more of the following:

Physiochemical Effects: –

  1. Explosive,
  2. Oxidising,
  3. Extremely flammable,
  4. Highly flammable,
  5. Flammable

Toxicological Effects: –

  1. Very toxic,
  2. Toxic,
  3. Harmful,
  4. Corrosive,
  5. Irritant
  6. Sensitizing

Specific Effects on Human Health:

  1. Carcinogenic,
  2. Mutagenic,
  3. Toxic for reproduction

Environmental Effects: –

  1. Dangerous for the environment.
  • List five product categories that have full exemption from the REACH legislation.
    1. Radioactive Substances
  1. Substances transported or under customs supervision
  2. Waste as defined in Directive 2006/12/EC
  3. Substance used exclusively as a non-isolated intermediate
  4. The carriage of dangerous substances and dangerous substances in dangerous preparations by rail, road, inland waterway, sea or air. 
  • A cryogenic fluid is one whose vapor must be cooled below room temperature before it can be liquefied by an increase in pressure. Give 4 Hazards which face cryogenic fluid users?
    1. Frost Bite.
  1. Respiratory ailment
  2. Chemical burns
  3. Low temperature embrittlement of some metals.
  4. Some react violently when combined with other cf’s
  5. Some react violently when combined with their surroundings. 
  • Give eight safety recommendations which should be applied to a chemical store?
    1. The chemicals should be stored by categories ie Corrosive, Toxic, Reactive, Flammable etc.
  1. Do not have shelves above shoulder height.
  2. Separate all reactive and non-compatibles.
  3. Provide an adequate ventilation system.
  4. Fire fighting equipment should be designed specifically for the store and it’s contents
  5. The store structure should be fire resistant.
  6. The contents should be identified and listed externally.
  7. Safety showers and eye wash facilities must be provided.
  8. Electric services to flame proof standard. 
  • Will any type of barrier cream do?
    1. No – It must be the correct one for the job. 
  • Why use a barrier cream?
    1. It protects the hands, and helps to prevent dermatitis. 
  • What are the best colors for walls and ceilings?
    1. Light colors; they raise the spirits and improve the lighting. 
  • Does the color of the floor matter, qualify your answer?
    1. Yes, light floors improve the brightness. 
  • What is a barrier cream?
    1. It is a cream, which is spread upon the hands and forearms to protect the skin from the effects of the work, and to enable the hands to be easily cleaned. 
  • Name two generic types of barrier cream?
    1. Water resistant.
  1. Oil resistant.
  2. Film forming. 
  • Give 4 essential attributes of an industrial skin cleaner?
    1. Easy to use and dispense.
  1. Easy to remove
  2. Medically safe
  3. Uses no abrasives or solvents.
  4. Cleans thoroughly
  5. Works quickly. 
  • Can you name the two terms used to define whether occupational exposure to chemicals is either short and severe or the effects accumulating over a period of time?
    1. Acute.
    2. Chronic. 
  • In terms of the effects of chemicals in the workplace what do the letters

O.E.L. and M.E.L. stand for?

  1. Occupational Exposure Limit.
  2. Maximum Exposure Limit. 
  • The hazard symbol shaped like an X and assigned by virtue of the current Regulations, is indicative of what two distinct chemical hazard types?
    1. Harmful.
    2. Irritant. 
  • In the context of injury arising from certain workplace activities the acronyms W.R.U.L.D.(Pronounced world) and R.S.I. are often used, what do they stand for?
    1. Work Related Upper Limb Disorders.
    2. Repetitive Strain Injury. 
  • Under section 31 of the Factories Act 1955, what must a woman or young person not clean. Give two points?
    1. A prime mover or transmission machine while it is in motion.
    2. Any part of any machine if there is a risk of injury from any moving part of that machine or any adjacent machine. 
  • What are the hazards associated with the use of methanol as an Industrial Solvent?
    1. It is Highly Flammable.
  1. It is toxic.
  2. It is absorbed through the skin. 
  • Occupational Hygiene is recognized as the discipline of of involving five key elements to be applied in the working environment with the objective of protecting worker health and well-being and safeguarding the community at large. Can you name three of the elements?
    1. Anticipating health hazards
  1. Recognising health hazards
  2. Evaluating health hazards
  3. Preventing health hazards
  4. Controlling health hazards.
  • Current legislation and guidance lays down under the provisions dealing with sanitary facilities the number of water closets and urinals required for existing workplaces depending on numbers employed. Can you indicate (a) The number of water closets for a female workforce between 31 to 45 and

(b) Water closets and Urinals for a male workforce of 31 to 45?

(a) 4.

(b) 2 of each.

  • Current legislation and guidance lays down under the provisions dealing with sanitary facilities the number of water closets and urinals required for existing workplaces depending on numbers employed. Can you indicate the number of water closets and (b) urinals required for a male workforce of 16 to 30?
  • A>(a) 2. (b) 1.
  • Current legislation and guidance lays down under the provisions dealing with sanitary facilities the number of of wash basins required for existing workplaces depending on numbers employed. Can you indicate the number of wash basins required for a female workforce (a) of between 46 to 60 persons and (b) 50 persons If the work leads to heavy contamination of hands or forearms?
  • A>(a) 3.(b) 5. 
  • Current legislation and guidance lays down under the provisions dealing with sanitary facilities the number of of wash basins required for existing workplaces depending on numbers employed. Can you indicate the number of wash basins required for a male workforce with no urinals provided (a) of between 61 to 75 persons and (b) 90 persons If the work leads to heavy contamination of hands or forearms ?A>(a) 6. (b) 7. 
  • Current legislation and guidance lays down under the provisions dealing with sanitary facilities that, in general, the washing facilities environment should meet five criteria. Can you name three of the criteria?
  1. 1. adequate lighting
  2. sufficiently ventilated
  3. adequately protected from the weather
  4. appropriately maintained
  5. kept clean. 
  • Current legislation and guidance lays down under the provisions dealing with sanitary facilities that adequate and suitable showers for employees if required by the nature of the work or for health reasons related thereto should meet four criteria. Can you name three of them?
  1.  separate shower rooms or separate use of shower rooms for men and women,
  2. shower rooms which are sufficiently large to permit each employee to wash without hindrance in satisfactory conditions of hygiene, and
  3. showers which are equipped with hot and cold running water,
  4. easy access between the rooms housing showers or washbasins where they are separate from the changing rooms. 
  • Current legislation and guidance lays down under the provisions dealing with sanitary facilities that WC compartments should meet five criteria. Can you name three of them ?
    1. WC compartment doors should be equipped with locks that can be easily operated by the user and readily released from outside in case of an emergency.
  1. WC compartments and urinals should not be visible from outside the toilet.
  2. WC compartments should be supplied with toilet paper and hooks so that clothing does not have to be placed on the floor.
  3. Female toilet compartments should be supplied with a suitable sanitary disposal unit.
  4. If WC bowl fittings become loose they need to be secured to prevent them falling over. 
  • Current legislation and guidance lays down, under the provisions dealing with sanitary facilities, that changing rooms should, when provided, meet five particular criteria. Can you name three of these?
    1. Be readily accessible from workrooms.
  1. Be provided in conjunction with any shower or bathing accommodation, and have easy communication with it.
  2. Have easy communication with the clothing accommodation.
  3. Contain adequate seating.
  4. Be conveniently situated for the use of employees using facilities for taking meals. 
  • Current legislation and guidance under the provisions dealing with sanitary facilities gives two examples of the type of work exposures where showers should be provided for the use of employees. Can you outline the 2 examples?
    1. exposure to heavy physical work.
    2. exposure to offensive or harmful substances where ongoing skin and hair contamination must be prevented. 
  • When working with pressurized cylinders, what conditions of associated storage have to be met?
    1. The cylinders must be upright and secured to prevent a fall. 
  • The two hoses on an oxygen-acetylene welding/cutting set are coloured differently. Give the two colors and which is which?
    1. Blue: – Oxygen. Red: -Acetylene. 
  • Is oxygen detectable by smell?
    1. No – It is an odorless. 
  • Is oxygen lighter or heavier than air?
    1. Slightly heavier. 
  • Is nitrogen lighter or heavier than air?
    1. Slightly lighter. 
  • Is oxygen an inflammable gas?
    1. No – But it vigorously supports combustion. 
  • What is the main constituent of Natural Gas?
    1. Metane. 
  • What do the letters L.P.G. marked on a cylinder stand for?
    1. Liquefied Petroleum Gas. 
  • What are the two main constituents of L.P.G.?
    1. Propane and butane. 
  • Is L.P.G. heavier or lighter than air?
    1. Heavier than air. 
  • Is petrol vapour heavier or lighter than air?
    1. Heavier than air. 
  • Is chlorine gas heavier or lighter than air?
    1. Heavier than air. 
  • Is acetylene gas heavier or lighter than air?
    1. Lighter than air. 
  • Exposure to what toxic gas is the principal hazard in the motor repair industry?
    1. Exposure to carbon monoxide from exhaust gases. 
  • Name one correct way to test for a gas leak?
    1. By brushing with soapy water over suspected point of leak.
    2. Use an appropriate sensitive gas detector. 
  • Is it acceptable to store all gas cylinders in the one store?
    1. No – Cylinders containing flammable or explosive gases should never be stored in the same store as oxygen. 
  • The normal pressure for compressed air lines in factories is in the region of 80/100 psi. Give two dangers of using a line of this pressure for cleaning clothing and machinery?
    1. The air at this pressure may be forced through the skin, and if it enters the blood stream the result could be fatal.
    2. The air at this pressure will blow around small objects that can cause accidents. 
  • What is important about the pressure of compressed air supplied to a pressure vessel?
    1. It should not exceed the W.P. of the vessel. 
  • What two things compressed air should not be used for?
    1. Cleaning clothes.
    2. Horse play. 
  • Is it a good idea to use compressed air for the removal of swarf or dust from a machine, qualify your answer?
    1. No, particles are blown about to the danger of others. 
  • How is the air pressure of a system reduced?
    1. By a reducing valve. 
  • Name 4 essential safety requirements which should be associated with an air receiver?
    1. The Safe Working Pressure must be clearly marked on it.
  1. A suitable safety valve must be fitted.
  2. An accurate pressure gauge must be fitted.
  3. There should be an inspection manhole.
  4. There should be an identification mark or number on it.
  5. There should be a drain appliance fitted. 
  • What is the correct procedure for joining a gas hose to a cylinder regulator?
    1. The hose should be connected to an approved hose connector, and all hose/connector joints should be completed by the fitting of hose clips of the jubilee or other approved type to ensure a gas tight joint. 
  • What four essential precautions are necessary when handling or storing oxygen cylinders?
    1. Store upright.
  1. Keep oil away from
  2. Do not expose to heat.
  3. Do not drop. 
  • Which of the following three gases is lighter than air?
  1. Ethane?
  2. Acetylene?
  3. Propane?
    1. (2). 
  • Which of the following flammable gases is lighter than air?
  1. Methane?
  2. Butane?
    1. (1) Methane. 
  • Name four common non-flammable gases?
    1. Nitrogen, Oxygen, Argon, Nitrous Oxide, Carbon Dioxide, C.F., Helium. 
  • How is (a) Carbon Monoxide formed and (b) what is it?
    1. (a) Carbon monoxide is created by the incomplete combustion of any carbon-based fuel,(b) It is a toxic, colorless, odorless, tasteless and nonirritant gas that is slightly less dense than air and is very soluble in water. 
  • What four safety precautions should be taken to control carbon monoxide exposure in a workplace?
    1. Keep rooms properly ventilated when gas appliances are operating.
  1. Keep gas appliances properly maintained and serviced at regular intervals.
  2. Portable petrol/diesel engines should never be run indoors in a confined space.
  3. Where forklift trucks or similar are used indoors in warehouses, etc. advice should be sought from the regulatory authorities or suppliers. 
  • What two sectors or occupations are most likely to be affected by fatal carbon monoxide poisoning?
    1. The occupations most affected in terms of fatal accidents are:-
      • Security workers and night watchmen.
      • Those working in poorly ventilated atmospheres where gas is used for heating. 
  • What are the similar and dissimilar distinguishing features between threads of combustible and non-combustible gas cylinders?
    1. The cylinders have the same screwed thread size.
  1. Right-hand threads are on oxygen and noncombustible gas
  2. Left-hand threads are on acetylene and other combustible gas cylinders. 
  • What gas would you expect to find in each of the three cylinders color coded by BOC as follows:-
  • 1.Black,
  • 2.Maroon/Chocolate,
  • 3.Red with white dot.
  • A> 1.Oxygen
  • 2. Acetylene.
  • 3. Hydrogen.
What gas would you expect to find in each of the three cylinders colour coded by BOC as follows:-(a) Blue,(b) Grey with Black Neck,

(c) Grey?

·            (a)   Argon.(b)  Nitrogen.(c)   Air.
· Which if any of the following substances are normally refrigerated to store as Liquefied Gases?1.    Ethylene Oxide.2.    Isobutane.

3.    Ethane.

4.    Oxygen.

·            A. 3 & 4 – Ethane & Oxygen.
Which if any of the following substances are normally refrigerated to store as Liquefied Gases?1.    Ammonia.2.    Propylene.

3.    Nitrogen.

4.    Methane.

            A. 3 & 4 – Nitrogen & Methane.
Q. What emergency steps should you take if an acetylene cylinder becomes hot due to a flashback or accidental heating. Give three?
            1.     Shut the valve if possible.

2.     Detach the regulator or other fittings.

3.     Take cylinder out of doors and immerse in water or drench with water until cylinder is cool.

4.     Contact the supplier for further advice.

· Q. How can you tell the difference between an Argon+CO2 (argoshield gas) cylinder and an Argon cylinder?
  A. There is a green band on an argoshield cylinder.

 How would you remove material and waste from a height?

A>Lower properly using a hand line, or empty down a chute. 

What 2 precautions are necessary in an area where work may take place on a fragile roof?

Warning notices must be displayed warning personnel of the fragile roof condition.

Crawling boards or ladders must be used when working on fragile roofs. 

  • What precautions are necessary in an area where work may take place on a sloping roof?
  • A>Crawling boards or ladders must be used when working on a sloping roof.
  • If people are working in deep trenches, what precautions are necessary?
    1. Adequate shoring is necessary or the sides should be sloped to prevent a collapse of the soil. 
  • What must be done before you commence digging any excavation on a work site?
    1. A>Ensure the excavation work will not break or damage any underground services such as Drains, Mains, Power Lines, etc. 
  • How often should an excavation where shoring is necessary be inspected by a competent person?
    1. At least once on every day during which persons are employed therein. 
  • Can trestles be used for scaffolds?
    1. Yes – Provided they are in good condition and suitable for the job. 
  • What is the greatest menace on a building site?
    1. Poor housekeeping. 
  • In relation to scaffolding what are toe-boards for?
    1. To prevent articles falling off the scaffold platform, or persons slipping or rolling out under the guard rail. 
  • Who should handle explosives?
    1. A competent suitably trained person. 
  • What type of protection is a must for everyone on a construction site?
    1. A Safety Helmet. 
  • Why wear hard hats (Safety Helmets) on building sites?
    1. As a protection against falling objects, and striking the head on structures. 
  • Name two precautions which must be taken to safe guard workers when working on heights if scaffolding is impossible to use?
    1. Use of Safety Nets.
    2. Use of Safety Belts. 
  • Must sanitary accommodation be provided by Civil Engineering Contractors for persons employed?
    1. Yes. 
  • Give two actions that must be taken in relation to an excavation or opening in a floor?
    1. Fenced off.
  1. Warning notice,
  2. Lit after dark. 
  • Give two instances when should scaffold be inspected?
    1. Before use.
    2. After exposure to weather conditions which may affect it. 
  • Under the construction regulations, what height should guard rails be on scaffolds?
    1. Not greater than 2m and not less than 0.95m. 
  • When a vehicle is tipping material over a bank what precautions are necessary?
    1. Scotches or barriers should be provided behind the back wheels. 
  • What is necessary when there is a risk of falling material?
    1. Adequate preventative measures to protect persons. 
  • Name the two most obvious safeguards for persons when working over water?
    1. They should wear life jackets.
    2. A boat should be kept near by. 
  • What precautions must be taken with the generation of steam into a workplace?
    1. Vision must not be obscured. Prevent burns from hot steam. 
  • What precautions should be taken to safeguard workers at a height where scaffolding is not practicable?
    1. Use safety sheets or nets, and safety belts. 
  • A chain saw should not be carried while it is running, unless what device is fitted and applied?
    1. A chain brake. 
  • When is it permitted to use a basket attachment on a forklift?
    1. It can only be used for non-routine, exceptional work. 
  • What is defined as a sloping roof?
    1. One where the pitch is more than 10 degrees. 
  • How often must shoring be inspected?
    1. At least once per day, preferably every shift. 
  • When should excavations be checked?
    1. Periodically, especially after rainfalls, periods of dryness, frost and inrushes of water and every shift.  
  Q. When deep trenches are dug, what must be done to prevent collapse?
             A. The sides must either be sloped at least 45 degrees or be sturdily timbered or shored or use a trench box.
  Q. What is the correct way to enter a trench if there is a trench box in use?
             A. There should be a fixed vertical ladder fitted within the trench box and when coming back to ground level the ladder should extend one metre above the stepping off point.
  Q. What qualifications are needed to be qualified to inspect scaffolding?
             A. The CSCS card in Basic Scaffolding.
  Q. When should a scaffold be inspected by a qualified person, Give four occasions?
           1.     On each occasion before being taken into use.

2.     After being substantially added to.

3.     After exposure to severe weather conditions.

4.     After being struck by any equipment.

  Q. Can a construction worker remove a section of scaffold if it is in the way of the job?
           A. No – removal of a any section of the scaffold may the strength and stability of the entire scaffold. Removal of any section can only be carried out by a competent scaffolder and only under a Permit to work system. To do it under any other circumstances is a criminal offence.
  Q. What key ground characteristics should scaffold erectors look for before erecting the scaffold?
             A. They should look out for: basements, drains or patches of soft ground which could give way when loads are placed upon them.
  Q. When hiring a Mobile Scaffold from a hire company what four key features should be checked?
·             It should have:

•        wheels which can be locked

•        brakes that work

•        out riggers for stability

•        an internal fixed ladder for safe access.

 What is the minimum acceptable height of a toe board?

A> 6″ or 150. 

  • If you are stacking materials on a scaffold, what must you first of all establish?
    1. The Safe Working Load of the scaffold. 
  • A second, lower, guard-rail is required if the gap between the guard-rail and the top of the toe-board on a scaffold exceeds what distance?
  1. A>800 mm (32″). 
  • What is the maximum depth of a trench that may be dug in loose ground or sand before timbering or shuttering is required?
  1. 1.25 metres (4′ 2″). 
  • What is the maximum operating voltage for temporary lighting in buildings under construction?
    1. A>110 Volts. 
  • What two general First Aid arrangements should be made on a construction site?
    1. A well maintained First Aid Box.
    2. Have somebody trained in First Aid. 
  • On construction sites the location of underground cables must be marked at frequent intervals. What two pieces of information should be shown on these markers?
    1. The depth.
    2. The voltage. 
  • Apart from a toe-board and a hand rail what other part of a scaffold will prevent serious accidents from falls?
    1. A>The use of a mid rail. 
  • If drinking water is not available from the mains what kind of water may be used?
    1. A>Certified drinking water. 
Q. What fire precaution should be taken around petrol powered machines?
           A. The avoidance of smoking or naked flames.
Q. Personnel must not normally enter the working radius of an excavating machine. What two precautions should be taken before entering the area when essential?
           1.     The driver must be made aware of your entry.2.     The machine must come to rest.
On backhoe loaders (JCB’s) what position should the front loader be in when using the backhoe and why should it be in this position?
          1.     It should be lowered.2.     It gives greater stability.
Q. What safety control device should be attached to a pedestrian vibrating roller, and why should it be attached?
        1.     A dead mans handle.2.     In case the operator trips or falls.
Q. Why should a noise assessment be carried out on a construction site. Give two reasons?
         1.     To identify all workers at possible risk.2.     So that appropriate corrective action can be taken.
Q. Who needs to do Safe Pass awareness training?
           A. The Safe Pass Program is aimed at all construction site personnel, including new entrants, to ensure that they have a basic awareness of health and safety.
Q. List two groups who are exempt from Safe Pass on a construction site?
·           •        site office staff,

•        visiting architects, engineers & inspectors

•        those installing, commissioning equipment, who normally live and work outside the state and who have not spent more than 20 days working on the project within the last year.

 Who needs Construction Skills Certification Scheme CSCS?

    1. A>All construction workers undertaking the tasks listed in the Schedule 4 of Construction Regulations, 2006 must have received training approved by FAS under the Construction Skills Certification Scheme (CSCS) and be in possession of CSCS registration. 
  • Is there a need for a Safety Representative on a construction site?
    1. A Safety Representative is required where more than 20 persons are employed on a site at any one time. 
  • A client is required to appoint a Project Supervisor to oversee and co-ordinate safety and health matters during two distinct stages of a project: What are they?
  1. the design process and
  2. the construction stage. 
  • When should the Safety & Health Plan be reviewed?
    1. The plan should be reviewed as work progresses and updated as necessary. 
  • What are the three essential considerations in relation to the height of a mobile scaffold?
    1. It should not exceed three times the smaller width at the base.
  1. It should not exceed 12 metres.
  2. If over 5 metres it should be tied to the structure. 
  • What is the name given to the type of dam used while building a foundation under water?
    1. A Cofferdam 
  • Give another name for a cofferdam, and how does it keep the water out?
    1. Caisson Dam.
    2. By air pressure. 
  • Name three types of asbestos often mentioned in legislation, and state in increasing order of risk the names of these materials?
    1. Crocidolite (Blue). Amosite (Brown). Chrysotile (White)
  1. White Brown -Blue. 
Q. Give three of the four aims of the FAS Safe Pass Program?
·            1.     Raise the standard of safety awareness in the construction industry

2.     Ensure that all site personnel undergo basic health and safety awareness training

3.     Maintain a register of personnel who have received health and safety training.

4.     To provide all participants with a FAS Safe Pass registration card, indicating that the holder has attended a formal course in health and safety awareness.

Q. What are four of the benefits to employers of the FAS Safe Pass Program?
·            •        Improved Safety Culture.•        Reduction in accidents on site.

•        Reduction in lost time due to accidents.

•        Improve employee morale.

•        Identification of personnel with recognized training.

Q. What are four of the benefits to employees of the FAS Safe Pass Program?
·            •        Improved Safety and Health Awareness.•        Recognition of Safety Training.

•        Personal Development.

•        Provision of a Safe Pass Registration card.

•        Improved employment prospects.

Q. List three of the duties of a Safety Officer on a construction site?
           1.     Advise the contractor on how to comply with relevant statutory provisions2.     Exercise general supervision of the compliance with relevant statutory provisions

3.     Promote safe conduct at work generally

4.     Co-operate with any Safety Advisor appointed under statutory provisions in relation to safety, health and welfare at work on the project.

Q. List six of the duties, required by current Regulation, of employees and other persons at work on a construction site?
1. To comply with these Regulations
           2. To co-operate in carrying out the requirements of these Regulations
  1. To report any defect in the plant and equipment to which these Regulations
  2. Comply with all rules applicable to the person in the safety and health plan
  3. Make proper use of any safety helmet, harness or other personal protective equipment provided for the person’s safety and health
  4. Make proper use of any work equipment supplied
  5. Show relevant Safe Pass and relevant CSCS cards when requested to do so. 
  • What is
    • a Safety File?
    • Who prepares it?
    • What is its purpose? Give at least
  1.  The Safety File is a record of information,
  • Prepared by the project supervisor design process and construction
  • (i) To focus on safety and health issues.(ii) To alert those who are responsible of the significant safety and health risks that will need to be addressed during subsequent maintenance, repair or other construction work. 
  • List three items of information which should be included in the Safety File?
  1. 1. Construction drawings, specifications and bills of quantities, used and produced throughout the construction process
  2. The general design criteria
  3. Details of the equipment and maintenance facilities within the structure
  4. Maintenance procedures and requirements for the structure
  5. Manuals, certificates, produced by specialist contractors and suppliers typically in respect of lifts, electrical and mechanical installations and window cleaning
  6. Details of the location and nature of utilities and services, including emergency and firefighting systems. 
  • When and why is a Safety and Health Plan required? Give three reasons.
  1. A safety and health plan is required for any site where:-
    • the work concerned involves a Particular Risk; or
    • the work is planned to last longer than 30 working days or
    • the volume of work is scheduled to exceed 500 person. 
  • The Safe System of Work Plan covers House Building and Ground Works. What is the a Safe System of Work Plan and give two items that it achieves ?
  1. 1. The SSWP identifies the major hazards associated with construction work activities.
  2. It helps to ensure that appropriate controls are in place before work
  3. It communicates through the use of pictograms so that everyone on site, can understand what they need to do. 
Q. What are the three parts of the Safe System of Work Plan?
·            1.      Planning the activity2.      Identifying the hazards and controls

3.      Sign Off.

Should a new Safety System of Work Plan form be filled in for each new activity?
·            A new SSWP must be completed when•        a new hazard is identified

•        the task changes

•        the environment changes.

Q. Do I still need to prepare a Safety Statement if I have a Safe System of Work Plan, elaborate with four points?
            Yes.1.     The Safe System of Work Plan complements the Safety Statement

2.     It does not replace the requirements for a Safety Statement.

3.     The SSWP can ensure that the safety statement applies to the individual site or job.

4.     The SSWP can be used as a final check to ensure that the identified controls for a specific construction work activity are in place.

Q. There are 6 precautions that can be taken to prevent falls from Mobile Elevated Work Platforms. List all 6 of them?
           1.     A guard rail and mid rail round the edge of the basket to stop the user falling

2.     a slip-resistant floor

3.     toe-boards round the edge of the platform

4.     Deadman controls clearly marked to show their method of operation

5.     use of stability devices, e.g. outriggers, provided to make the machine stable, which are interlocked such that the MEWP will not operate unless they are fully extended and

6.     locking-out controls (other than those in the basket) to prevent

inadvertent operation.

 Give eight items to check on when carrying out a scaffold inspection?

    1. The alignment and support of the standards.
  1. The straightness of the ledgers.
  2. The adequacy of the bracing.
  3. Security of any ties to a building.
  4. The tightness of lashings or couplers.
  5. The platforms for support, security, and soundness.
  6. The guard rails and the boards.
  7. The security of ladders. 
  • Give the eight principal causes of accidents with cartridge operated tools?
    1. Careless handling of the tool
  1. Firing projectiles into unsuitable materials.
  2. Ricochets of the projectiles from the surface of the material.
  3. Use of gun with unauthorized people in the area.
  4. Being used adjacent to gas pipes or electrical
  5. Firing projectiles into brittle or weak
  6. Firing projectiles into hardened steel or
  7. Using the incorrect strength of cartridge for the job. 
  • There are thirteen training modules incorporated within the Safe Pass Program. List eight of them?
    1. The Reasons for Promoting Safety
      • Health and Safety At Work Legislation
      • Accident Reporting & Emergency Procedure
      • Accident Prevention
      • Health and Hygiene
      • Manual Handling
      • Working at Heights
      • Working with Electricity, Underground and Overhead
      • Use of Hand Held Equipment and Tools
      • Personal Protective Equipment
      • Safe Use of Vehicles
      • Noise and Vibrations
      • Excavations and Confined Spaces

Instrumentation Diagrams, Documents and Checklist

For a successful completion and the afterwards maintenance of plant instrumentation, the following drawings and documents are required. These documents serves its purpose right from the designing of the plant to erection, commissioning and successful running of plant. The documents are further used for maintenance of the same.

There are basically 2 drawings, more than 23 documents and more than 7 check lists used for instrumentation documentation. A brief explanation is as follows:

The 2 basic drawings are

1. P&ID

2. PFD

The 16 basic documents used for designing and constructions are

1.Piping details of instruments

2.Installation schedule of instruments

3.Calculation sheets for instruments

4.Specification sheets for instruments

5.Cause and effect diagrams of instruments

6.Layout drawings

7.Interconnection wiring diagrams of instruments

8.Process system drawings for equipments

9.Segment diagrams of instruments / GA drawings

10.Special drawings

11.Architect diagram or System block diagram

12.Logic diagrams

13.Emergency shutdown system functional diagram

14.Mounting details/Hook up diagram

15.Decommissioning documents

16.Cable schedule

17.I/O List

18.Vendor list and drawings

19.Instrumentation index

20.Loop drawings

21.JB Schedule

22.Concept node/ Control narrative



Apart from these documents there are various check lists for instrumentation. These includes


2.Punch point list.

3.Inspection report

4.Loop check list.

5.Logic checklist.

6.Process graphics checklist.

7.Installation checklist

8.Calibration check list.


A brief explanation of diagram can be given as follows:


The instrumentation department of an engineering firm is responsible for the selection of field devices that best matches the process design requirements. This includes the selection of the transmitters that fit the operating conditions, the type and sizing of valves, and other implementation details. An instrumentation engineer selects field devices that are designed to work under the normal operating conditions specified in the process flow diagram. Tag numbers are assigned to the field devices so they may be easily identified when ordering and shipping, as well as installing in the plant. The decisions that are made concerning field instrumentation, the assignment of device tags, and piping details are documented using a piping and instrumentation diagram (P&ID). A piping and instrumentation diagram is similar to a process flow diagram in that it includes an illustration of the major equipment. However, the P&ID includes much more detail about the piping associated with the process, to include manually operated blocking valves. It shows the field instrumentation that will be wired into the control system, as well as local pressure, temperature, or level gauges that may be viewed in the field but are not brought into the control system.

As mentioned earlier, the engineering company that is creating the P&ID normally has standards that they follow in the creation of this document. In some cases, the drawing includes an overview of the closed loop and manual control, calculations, and measurements that will be implemented in the control system. However, details on the implementation of these functions within the control system are not shown on the P&ID. Even so, the P&ID contains a significant amount of information and in printed form normally consists of many D size drawings (22 x 34 inches; 559 x 864 mm) or the European equivalent C1 (648 x 917mm). The drawings that make up the P&ID are normally organized by process area, with one or more sheets dedicated to the equipment, instrumentation, and piping for one process area.

Piping and Instrumentation Diagram is drawing that shows the instrumentation and piping details for plant equipment. The P&ID acts as a directory to all field instrumentation and control that will be installed on a process and thus is a key document to the control engineer. Since the instrument tag (tag number) assigned to field devices is shown on this document, the instrument tag associated with, for example, a measurement device or actuator of interest may be quickly found. Also, based on the instrument tags, it is possible to quickly identify the instrumentation and control associated with a piece of equipment. For example, a plant operator may report to maintenance that a valve on a piece of equipment is not functioning correctly. By going to the P&ID the maintenance person can quickly identify the tag assigned to the valve and also learn how the valve is used in the control of the process. Thus, the P&ID plays an important role in the design, installation and day to day maintenance of the control system. It is a key piece of information in terms of understanding what is currently being used in the plant for process control.



To meet market demands, a company may commission an engineering firm to build a new plant or to modify an existing plant to manufacture a product that meets certain specifications and that can be manufactured at a specific cost. Given these basic objectives, a process engineer will select the type of chemical or mechanical processing that best meets the planned production, quality, and efficiency targets. For example, if the equipment is to be used to make more than one product then the process engineer may recommend a batch process. For example, a batch reactor may be used to manufacture various grades of a lubrication additive. Once these basic decisions are made, the process engineer selects the equipment that will most cost-effectively meet the company’s objectives. Based on the production rate, the process engineer selects the size of the processing equipment and determines the necessary connections between the pieces of equipment. The process engineer then documents the design in a process flow diagram (PFD). The process flow diagram typically identifies the major pieces of equipment, the flow paths through the process, and the design operating conditions—that is, the flow rates, pressures, and temperatures at normal operating conditions and the target production rate.

Process flow diagram – Drawing that shows the general process flow between major pieces of equipment of a plant and the expected operating conditions at the target production rate.

pfd 2pfd

A brief explanation of documents can be given as follows:

1.Piping details of instruments

Instrument piping details are generated from SPI hook up module functionality. These gives  details of instruments installed in an equipment or in a pipe.

piping detail2piping details

2.Installation schedule of instruments

These documents are used as the primary instrumentation index and are prepared from SPI software. The time schedule for starting and finishing of a work is graphically said in these diagrams.

instrument schedule

3.Calculation sheets for instruments

These forms can be generated from SPI standard calculation module. The below form gives us details regarding the calculation done to select a particular instrument for a particular process with respect to pipe size, process, area and its application.

calculation sheet

4.Specification sheets for instruments

These forms can be prepared from SPI standard specification sheet module. This document has details regarding instruments tag number, service, P&ID number, make, model, serial number, lower sensor limit, upper sensor limit, material connections, power supply types etc.

specification sheet for instrumentsinstrumentation specification sheet 2

5.Cause and effect diagrams of instruments

A cause and effect drawing is a chart showing ESD or regulatory control system output reaction in response to abnormal input changes, giving details of process alarms, or trip points in response to process parameters or operating conditions. It is required for all permitted modes of plant operation. This does not detail all the logic decisions which takes place and cannot replace the logic diagram. It is arranged in a way that abnormal process conditions result in either shutdown or isolation of process equipments. For instance, if HH level of KO drum is sensed then shut down the compressor drive and close the isolation valve.

cause and effect 2cause and effect3

6.Layout drawings

Control room layout drawings show in plan views, the location of consoles, panels, control racks, computer racks and peripherals, logic racks, termination racks and boxes. Remote building layout drawings show the position of each item of major equipment like process interface building, analyzer house etc. Layout of control room console, panels, cabinets, or local panel serves as a guide for construction but does not provide exact dimensions. Only the overall dimensions, location of instrument items, shape, graphic layout, and general layout are provided in this. Front and back of cabinet/rack layout show dimensions, equipment location, wiring raceway, cable entries and terminal strips.

layout diagram

7.Interconnection wiring diagrams of instruments

Instrument interconnection wiring diagram are prepared for junction box and field control panels, Marshelling cabinets and instrument console/panels, cabinet/racks, junction boxes located in process interface building, substation, control rooms etc.

The main purpose of this drawing is to the individual wiring between devices and to identify the cable numbers, wire tagging, terminal identification, fuses sizes etc. All spare termination details are also shown in these drawings. Some simple wiring diagram are as shown below

wiring diawiring dia 3

8.Process system drawings for equipment

These drawings consists of the control system for opening of closing of valves for controlling level, pressure, temperature, flow and quality of any vessel or system on a large scale. This will have narrative explaining the control of system along with its logic. This is accompanied by control application program related documents. These documents also include smaller scale process system drawings such as analyzer unit. These are generally drawings relate to a system operating in plant like steam and water analysis system drawing as in analyzer panel, TIC- TOC (Total organic content/Total inorganic content) analyzer panel system, water in oil and oil in water analyzer panel etc on a smaller scale.

system drawings

9.Segment diagrams of instruments / General arrangement (GA) drawings

These drawing give us details regarding the cross sectional, top, front and side view of instruments along with its fittings like SS, ground terminals or conduits, HP, LP side in case of DP transmitter, mounting bracket details.


10.Special drawings

When intrinsically safety is used for protection in hazardous areas a special drawings like system control drawings are made in which both the intrinsically safe apparatus and the associated apparatus are identified by the manufactures, model numbers and entity parameters. Some special drawings are Bentley Nevada VMS drawings, Woodward governor documents, IR compressor module packages etc, BMS for boiler management.


11.Architect diagram or System block diagram

These drawings will be having a block diagram format of all major control systems components including routers, switches, gateways, servers, subsystems etc. Some of these drawing also identifies where all these physical components are located in CCR, Substation, Utilities control building. The overall cable wiring details are also provided along with the cable types, speed of communication link, protocol type and redundancy in some of the block diagrams but not every block diagrams. These drawings are generally drawn showing the DCS architecture, including all connected auxiliary systems like PCS, ESD, VMS, Compressor control, F&G, Printers etc.

system block diagram 2system block diagram

12.Logic diagrams

For a PLC or programmable logic controller to work, it must be programmed to do so. The most popular language used for programming a PLC is ladder logic. A simple ladder logic diagram is as shown below.

ladder logic

13.Emergency shutdown system drawing

Details of ESD drawing consist of following documents also contains Cause and effect supporting ESD actions, logic diagrams of ESD control narrative etc. The figure below shows an ESD drawing implemented using functional block diagram. ESD system is to shut down a unit or plant in case of any abnormality occurs in plant which would otherwise cause casualty or accident in a plant or factory.

esd fun dia2esd fun diagr

14.Mounting details/Hook up diagrams

These are also similar to piping details of instrument documents. In piping details, we get piping related documents for instrument locations and mounting styles. In mounting details there is wide perspective of installation techniques involving impulse tubes, mounting brackets, stanchions, flanges, capillary tube, nut-bolts, canopy, equalizing valves etc. These drawings can be generated from SPI hook up module functionality. A hook up diagram format is as shown below

hookup 1hookup 2

15.Decommissioning documents

Decommissioning activities is a very vast topic to be covered. It is beyond the scope of this article. A decommission documents include site evaluation documents; closure considerations like decontamination, waste disposal, soil removal etc; closure tasks and programmes; closure plan validation; closure plan costing etc. Some sample document is as shown below

decom 1decom 2decom 3decom 4decom 5

16.Cable schedule

The cable schedule documents give us a detailed explanation of the cable for laying. For instance PCS signals uses paired cables, ESD signals uses core cables, and FNG uses triad cables. These details along with cable number, cable type, drum number, cable length, vendor, details for cable laying regarding source panel to destination panel are also specified. Some sample cable schedule list as shown below

cable list list report 1cable list list report

17.I/O List

The Input output list gives explanation of the inputs and outputs of ESD, PCS and FNG groups. It gives us details about inputs like PT, FT, LT tag details and outputs like Control valve tag, On/Off valve tags etc. The details included in the I/O list are PID number, loop number, tag number of I/O service, location, type of function whether ESD, PCS or FNG, I/O type whether digital or analog, range, unit, redundancy, category etc. Some sample I/O lists format are as shown below.

I-O list 1I-O list

18.Vendor list and drawings

These lists consist of the vendors who supply the instruments to the client. These vendors provide their instrument details and related documents and drawings which are known to be vendor drawings. The total number of vendors, who are allowed to supply instruments in the project are listed in vendor list and their manuals are considered as vendor drawings. Some sample vendor lists for instrument supply are as shown below

vendor list 1vendor list 2vendor list 3

These authorised vendors are thereby needed to provide the vendor drawings related to their instrument details of each tags and its installation method and its datasheets. A sample vendor drawing for a pressure gauge is as shown below and its specification

vendor drawing 1vendor drawing 2

19.Instrumentation index

An instrument index gives us the total instruments to be installed in a project. It gives us the details regarding the instruments like tag number, instrument type like Pressure transmitter, FT or LT etc, P&ID number, equipment number, scope, location, I/O type, system, category etc. A simple instrument index format is as shown below.

instrument index

20.Loop drawings

The piping and instrumentation diagram identifies, but does not describe in detail, the field instrumentation that is used by the process control system, as well as field devices such as manual blocking valves that are needed in plant operations. Many of the installation details associated with field instrumentation, such as the field devices, measurement elements, wiring, junction block termination, and other installation details are documented using a loop diagram. A loop diagram, also commonly known as a loop sheet, is created for each field device that has been given a unique tag number. The loop diagrams for a process area are normally bound into a book and are used to install and support checkout of newly

installed field devices. After plant commissioning, the loop Diagrams provide the wiring details that a maintenance person needs to find and troubleshoot wiring to the control system.

Loop Diagram – Drawing that shows field device installation details including wiring and the junction box (if one is used) that connects the field device to the control system. The loop diagram typically contains a significant amount of detail. For example, if a junction box is used as an intermediate wiring point, the loop diagram will contain information on the wiring junctions from the field device to the control system.As is illustrated in this example, junction box connections are shown on the line that shows the division between the field and the rack room. The loop diagram shows the termination numbers used in the junction box and the field device and for wiring to the control system input and output cards. Also, the Display and Schematic portions of the loop diagram provide information on how the field input and output are used in the control system.Also, connections are shown between the control system analog output card and an I/P transducer and pneumatic valve actuator. Details such as the 20 psi air supply to the I/P and the 60 psi air supply to the actuator are shown on this drawing. Based on information provided by the loop diagram, we know that the I/P will be calibrated to provide a 3–15 psi signal to the valve actuator. In addition, specific details are provided on the level measurement installation. Since the installation shows sensing lines to the top and bottom of the tank, it becomes clear that the tank is pressurized and that level will be sensed based on the differential pressure.Even fine details such as the manual valve to regulate the flow of purge water are included in the loop diagram to guide the installation and maintenance of the measurement device. The loop diagram provides information that is critical to the installation, checkout, and maintenance of field devices. By examining the loop diagram, it is possible to learn details that may not be obvious when you are touring the plant site. A simple loop drawing format is as shown below.

LOOP DIAGRloop diagram

21.JB Schedule

A JB schedule gives us a detailed description of termination and wiring to be carried out in a junction box. It gives us how is the primary cable coming from Marshelling cabinet is connected to field cables or secondary cables of the respective instruments. Normally the secondary cables are connected to the left side of the terminal block of JB and the primary cables are connected to the right side of the terminal block. A JB schedule details include the number of terminal strips, JB location, colour code of the cables, instrument tag numbers, polarity of the cables, shield cable connection details etc. A simple JB schedule is as shown below.

JB scedule

22.Concept node/ Control narrative

A Concept note explains the ESD logic shown in the logic diagram. This narrative serves as guideline for embedding comments in ladder and logic diagram networks. A process control narrative, or PCN, is a functional statement describing how device-mounted controls, panel mounted controls, PLCs, HMIs, and other processor-based process control system components should be configured and programmed to control and monitor a particular process, process area or facility. PCNs are sometimes referred to as concept node, control strategies, control narratives, sequence descriptions, and by other similar names. A PCN is the essential link between process design and control system design. It also forms an integral part of the final control system documentation, providing in the most concise but descriptive form, a statement that ties together process operation, process equipment, instrumentation, control philosophy, available control modes and control loops, as well as documenting control logic settings such as set points, computed values, alarm limits, normal operating limits, trips, interlocks, and other key parameters. A concept node is as shown below

control narrative 1control narrative 2control narrative 3control narrative 4control narrative 5control narrative 6control narrative 7control narrative 8

23. BOQ or Bill of Quantity.

BOQ or bill of quantity is the quantity or number or amount of materials need to carry out project. Normally 20% extra or spare is requested for carrying out the work in order to compensate for shortage. These BOQ includes number of JB, length of cables, number of instruments, number of instrument fittings, its installation and service cost, cable trays and ducts, canopy and sun shed, angles and plates, SS tubes and all materials related to erection of instruments. It consist of description of material to be purchased or procured, its quantity, its weight or unit, quantity to be procured within a time limit etc. Some simple form of BOQ are as shown below.


Now we will discuss about various check list used in instrumentation. There are more than 8 check lists for instrumentation. These includes


FAT or Factory acceptance test and SAT or Site Acceptance Test are one and same only. The only difference is FAT is executed at vendor test facilities and SAT is carried out at client site. FAT / SAT documents covers all the functional specifications of the equipment as demanded by the client requirements.

Factory Acceptance Tests are done at the factory to make sure that certain requirements are met, which results in high quality products. The tests are normally done with the customer, and also, in certain more demanding cases, with a third party inspection agency.

Although all cabins should be fault-free when they arrive from the subcontractors that assemble them, faults sometimes occur. Therefore these factory acceptance tests are needed.

At a FAT, installations are double checked so that they match the drawings for the specific project. Functions that should work when cabins are installed at site are also simulated to check the automation functionality. All possible faults, deviations and wishes are also noted.Site Acceptance Tests are done at the specific places where commissioning is done. These tests are also done to make sure that certain requirements and a high quality are met amongst client’s projects and to offer customers quality testing and documents. Normally the same test procedures as at FAT are followed, plus procedures that cannot be done at FAT. E.g. breaker control is excluded from FAT but done at SAT. The results of the SAT are noted in the test protocols and then signed by both the customer and the commissioner. A FAT/SAT procedure covers 6 main parts:


b.System Software,

c.Human Interface Station Application.

d.Field Control Station Application

e.Safety Control Station Application

f.Field Control Node Application.

These procedures are covered in detail in another topic SAT/FAT procedures and is beyond the scope of this article.

2.Punch point list.

This checklist covers instrument list whose works are to be completion after the erection phase. The list have date, item description, the person who have inspected, action plan for completion of work, whether the job is completed after the issue of punch list, comments regarding the punch list etc.

punch list

3.Inspection report.

The inspection check list is generally is filled by QA and QC instrument engineer to confirm whether individual tag number are installed properly. The list details about the tag number, model, serial number, inspection checks for correct tagging, leak test, wiring, cable tags etc. An inspection checklist for a switch is as shown below.


4.Loop check list.

These check list gives us details regarding each loop for transmitters used in an erection. These details about the type of signals like AO, DO, ESD, PCS, FNG etc. It also confirms transmitter display, output and include the results of hot and cold loops performed. These also do have continuity test report regarding the loop. Some loop check reports are as shown below.


5.Logic checklist.

This checklist gives us data regarding the logic checks performed during commissioning phase and include the details of logics implemented in a control system or start up of a system. These have details regarding instrument tags, its state, alarms, inputs and outputs, how many items are affected during its activation etc.


6.Process graphics checklist.

The HMI or a control station panel will be having graphics for human interface. These graphical icons are tested during commissioning and erection period tag wise. This is done and documented in process graphics tag list. This list has graphic tags, service, its static test result and its dynamic test results during its working. For example the red colour of a control valve indicate it is closed and green colour in its graphic represents closed and yellow colour represents the valve moving condition. These are verified and are documented in a process graphics list. A process graphics checklist is as shown below.


7.Installation check list:

The instrument installation check list is similar to inspection checklist and details whether an instrument is properly installed in a field. A simple installation check list is as shown below


8.Calibration check list

A calibration check list contains the details of calibration check done during its commissioning period for its proper working. The instruments are checked for their various ranges from 0% to its 100% in both increasing and decreasing order. These details include instrument tag, model number serial number, range, test ranges, equipments used for testing, performer and verifier signature etc. These check list is also used for annual maintenance report for carrying out preventive maintenance and corrective maintenance documentation. Simple calibration checklist is as shown below

calibration check listSUMMARY DOCUMENTS

Ultrasonic flow measurement working principle

Ultrasonic flow meters works on the principle of transit-time differential method. Transit time differential is defined as the time difference between the time required for ultrasonic signal to cross the pipeline in one direction and the time taken by the signal in reverse direction. This measuring principle is based on a simple physical fact. Imagine two boats crossing a river diagonally, one with the flow and one against the flow. Naturally the boat that is travelling with the flow will reach the opposite side sooner and the boat that is travelling upstream which is against flow will reach later. Acoustic signals, like ultrasonic waves also behave in a same way.

By using ultrasonic sensors, the transit time of acoustic signals that travel upstream and downstream are measured. The difference in transit time is proportional to the mean flow velocity and is transformed into an output signal by the electronics.

The three measuring beams are generally used for making a three dimensional cross section of the medium that flows through the measuring tube. These measuring lines are positioned in such a way that the influence of the flow profile (laminar or turbulent) is largely reduced. Combined with the use of the latest signal processing techniques like Digital Signal Processing (DSP), a reliable measurement can be obtained. 

The flow velocity measurement of the 3-beam ultrasonic flow meter is based on measurement at three positions in the measuring tube. Two of the acoustic beams are located in symmetrical arrangement on the outside and the third beam is located in the centre of the measuring tube. Each individual acoustic path of measurement forms an angle Ø with the tube centreline. The ultrasonic waves travel from point A to point B at speed.



Also, from point B to point A at speed


And the transit time taken from point A to B is given by the equation (distance/velocity), here distance is given by L length from point A to B.


And the transit time taken from point B to A is given by the equation,


 tAB and tBA are measured continuously. The mean flow velocity Vm of the product is calculated using the last two equations.

Mean velocity is calculate by the equation,


The popular ultra sonic flow meter is from Krohne UFM 3030.


Indian Penal Code


Hook up diagram

Calibration of Siemens Sipart PS2

Calibration of Rosemount TT

Control valve sizing equation

Control valve leakage classification

Bently Nevada VMS continued

Intrinsically safe barrier

I/P converter

Lapping of a control valve

Limit switch


Hookup diagram continued

Instrumentation related to a motor driven pump

Flow transmitter DP type

Typical foundation fieldbus wiring

Painting procedures

Instrumentation cable design specification

Standard power supply requirements of instruments

Acceptable ranges of Instruments

Instrumentation general design requirements part 1

Instrumentation general design requirements part 2

Instrumentation general design requirements part 3

Instrumentation general design requirements part 4

Instrumentation general design requirements part 5





3 element control

Ultrasonic flow measurement

Parameter setting of  E+H LT Siemens LT parameter setting

Parameter setting of KTek LT Analysis of Pump Vibration HART Communication Instrumentation tube fittings

Radar LT non contact type

Rosemount GWR parameter setting

Offset calculation GWR

Temperature transmitter types

Flow transmitter types

Level transmitter types

Pressure  transmitter types

Piping and Instrument diagram

Smoke detector working

Conductivity transmitter working

Gas detector working

Flame detector working

Units and conversion

Specific gravity

Instrumentation Interview questions

Temperature transmitter calibration

Pressure transmitter calibration

Magnectostrictive LT calibration

Hazardous area classification

Excel short keys

Digital electronics

Thermocouple mV conversion chart

Foundation field bus

Rosemount 3051 series transmitter

Hydrogen sulphide

Root cause Analysis

Shore Key Line up

pH Analyser

Mathematic Formula


Oil in Water Analyser

BSW Analyser

Capacitive Level Transmitter

LRV and URV Level Transmitter

Instrument Loop Diagram

Laser Level Transmitter

Turbine Flow Transmitter

Zero Suppression and Elevation

Bently Nevada 3500 VMS

Control Valve Servicing

Safety Integrity Level

Instrumentation Working Principle

Instrumentation Gland Sizes

LRV and URV of DP level transmitter

Instrumentation working principle continued

Level measurement using Pressure gauge

Tips and tricks in field Instrumentation

Data Communication Protocol

Pressure Unit Conversion

Calibration of  GWR level transmitter

Control Valves

ERS Level transmitter Parameters

Calibration of wet leg tube Level transmitter

Calibration of capillary type Level transmitter

mV conversion chart

Gulf JOB

Reynolds Number

Calibration of displacer type LT

My profile

Chemical hazard pictogram

RTD conversion chart

Ingress Protection

To know more about Instrumentation and Control,


Three element control in a boiler

For safe and efficient boiler operation, a constant level of water in the boiler drum is required to be maintained.

Drum Level Control Systems are used extensively throughout the process industries and the Utilities to control the level of boiling water contained in boiler drums on process plant and help provide a constant supply of steam. If the level is too high, flooding of steam purification equipment can occur. If the level is too low, reduction in efficiency of the treatment and re circulation function. Pressure can also build to dangerous levels.

A drum level control system tightly controls the level whatever the disturbances, level change, increase/decrease of steam demand, feedwater flow variations.

In the process industries, boiling water to make steam is a very important procedure. The control of water level is a major function in this process and it is achieved through a water steam interface established in a cylindrical vessel called the drum which is usually lying on its side and located near the top of the boiler. Providing tight water level control in a drum is accomplished by utilizing one of three types of drum level control: single-element, two-element, or three-element. This article discuss only about 3-element drum level control.

It handles loads exhibiting wide and rapid rates of change. Plants which exhibit load characteristics of this type are those with mixed, continuous, and batch processing demands. It is also recommended where normal load characteristics are fairly steady; but upsets can be sudden, unpredictable and/or a significant portion of the load. In the figure below, the control scheme for three-element drum level control.


Steam flow is measured by the steam flow transmitter (FT-1), its signal is fed to the feedwater flow computer (FY-3) after processing through the square root extractor (FY-1). The drum level is measured by the level transmitter (LT-1) and its signal is transmitted to the drum level controller (LC-1). In the drum level controller, the process signal is compared to the drum level set point, where a required corrective output signal to maintain the drum level is produced. This corrective signal is sent to the feedwater flow computer (FY-3). The feedwater flow computer combines the signal from the two variables, and produces an output signal to FIC-2. Feedwater flow is measured by the transmitter (FT-2). The output signal of the feedwater flow transmitter is linearized by the square root extractor, (FY-2). This signal is the process variable to the feedwater controller (FIC-2) and is compared to the output of the feedwater flow computer (FY-3) which acts as set-point. The feedwater flow controller (FIC-2) produces the necessary corrective signal to maintain feedwater flow at its set-point by the adjustment of the feedwater control valve (FCV-1). All of the work necessary to compensate for load change is done by the feed-forward system (i.e. a pound of feedwater change is made for every pound of steam flow change). The drum level portion of the control scheme is used only in a compensating role. Despite low-to-moderate volume/ throughput ratio and a wide operating range, it is expected the drum level will be maintained very close to set-point. Achieving this requires use of the integrating response and reset in both the drum level and feedwater controllers.

FT-1, FT-2 and LT-1 may be the same type of transmitter. Auto/Manual transfer of the feedwater control valve is accomplished via FK-1.This means stocking only one type of transmitter in the case of a transmitter failure. In order to understand this, consider an example as illustrated below. In this case, I have ignored that the flow transmitter is of square root and it is taken as linear. So please ignore the square root extractor in the below explanation for simplicity.

I have also ignored the complex calculation in the controller and flow meter station and controllers regarding error calculation. Also I have considered this to be a proportional controller. Integral and differentiating controllers are considered if the load is varying abruptly, rapidly and over a period of time. Here I am avoiding time variable (integral and differential part) for simplicity of presentation. 

Case 1

Consider the drum level is at a stable level of 30% with feed water flow of 30% of its span or range. Now the load of the steam is stable and is supplying a stable load flow of 30% of its range. Now the control valve is having 30% opening. This is a stable condition and needs no controlling.


 Case 2

Consider steam consumption is increased by 20% from 30%. Now the steam flow is 50% as shown in step 1.The level of the steam drum is still 30%. These two values are fed to the FY 3. This feedwater flow computer FY3 uses a summing relay and controller, subtracts the level value 30% (in percentage) from the steam flow value 50% (in percentage) as shown in step 2. Thus 50%-30% gives us a value of 20%. This value of 20% acts as a set point to feedwater flow controller (FIC-2).Also the feed water flow transmitter output FY 2 is having 30%. The feedwater flow controller (FIC-2) uses a summing relay and controller which adds the output from FY2 and FY3. Thus the output of FIC 2 will be 20% + 30% = 50% as in step 3. This 50% acts as a command to the control valve to open 50% as in step 4, thus more feed water enters the steam drum to compensate for the increase in load as in step 5.

That is,


Case 3

Consider steam consumption is decreased to 20% from 30% as shown below. Now the steam flow is 20% as shown in step 1.The level of the steam drum is still 30%. These two values are fed to the FY 3. This feedwater flow computer FY3 uses a summing relay and controller which subtracts the level value 30% (in percentage) in percentage from the steam flow value 20% (in percentage) as shown in step 2. Thus 20%-30% gives us a value of -10%. This value of -10% acts as a set point to feedwater flow controller(FIC-2).

Also the feed water flow transmitter output FY 2 is having 30%. The feedwater flow controller (FIC-2) uses a summing relay and controller which adds the output from FY2 and FY3. Thus the output of FIC 2 will be -10% + 30% = 20% as in step 3. This 20% acts as a command to the control valve to close to 20% as in step 4, thus less feed water enters the steam drum to compensate for the decrease in load as in step 5.


Thus in every case the level of the steam drum is maintained at a safe level.

Please note that in actual industrial applications the op-amp and micro controller based controller works in an entirely different manner. This article is made simple for getting a basic knowledge of three element control. I have also ignored the integral and differential part of PID controller

Indian Penal Code


Hook up diagram

Calibration of Siemens Sipart PS2

Calibration of Rosemount TT

Control valve sizing equation

Control valve leakage classification

Bently Nevada VMS continued

Intrinsically safe barrier

I/P converter

Lapping of a control valve

Limit switch


Hookup diagram continued

Instrumentation related to a motor driven pump

Flow transmitter DP type

Typical foundation fieldbus wiring

Painting procedures

Instrumentation cable design specification

Standard power supply requirements of instruments

Acceptable ranges of Instruments

Instrumentation general design requirements part 1

Instrumentation general design requirements part 2

Instrumentation general design requirements part 3

Instrumentation general design requirements part 4

Instrumentation general design requirements part 5





3 element control

Ultrasonic flow measurement

Parameter setting of  E+H LT Siemens LT parameter setting

Parameter setting of KTek LT Analysis of Pump Vibration HART Communication Instrumentation tube fittings

Radar LT non contact type

Rosemount GWR parameter setting

Offset calculation GWR

Temperature transmitter types

Flow transmitter types

Level transmitter types

Pressure  transmitter types

Piping and Instrument diagram

Smoke detector working

Conductivity transmitter working

Gas detector working

Flame detector working

Units and conversion

Specific gravity

Instrumentation Interview questions

Temperature transmitter calibration

Pressure transmitter calibration

Magnectostrictive LT calibration

Hazardous area classification

Excel short keys

Digital electronics

Thermocouple mV conversion chart

Foundation field bus

Rosemount 3051 series transmitter

Hydrogen sulphide

Root cause Analysis

Shore Key Line up

pH Analyser

Mathematic Formula


Oil in Water Analyser

BSW Analyser

Capacitive Level Transmitter

LRV and URV Level Transmitter

Instrument Loop Diagram

Laser Level Transmitter

Turbine Flow Transmitter

Zero Suppression and Elevation

Bently Nevada 3500 VMS

Control Valve Servicing

Safety Integrity Level

Instrumentation Working Principle

Instrumentation Gland Sizes

LRV and URV of DP level transmitter

Instrumentation working principle continued

Level measurement using Pressure gauge

Tips and tricks in field Instrumentation

Data Communication Protocol

Pressure Unit Conversion

Calibration of  GWR level transmitter

Control Valves

ERS Level transmitter Parameters

Calibration of wet leg tube Level transmitter

Calibration of capillary type Level transmitter

mV conversion chart

Gulf JOB

Reynolds Number

Calibration of displacer type LT

My profile

Chemical hazard pictogram

RTD conversion chart

Ingress Protection

To know more about Instrumentation and Control,